Tuesday, October 11, 2011

Public Private Partnership (PPP) Concept

“Public Private Partnership” (PPP) Partnership between a public sector entity (Sponsoring (PPP) authority) and a private sector entity (a legal entity in which 51% or more of equity is with the private partner/s) for the creation and/or management of infrastructure for public purpose for a specified period of time (concession period) on commercial terms and in which the private partner has been procured through a transparent and open procurement system

Traditionally, private sector participation has been limited to separate planning, design or construction contracts on a fee for service basis – based on the public agency’s specifications.
Expanding the private sector role allows the public agencies to tap private sector technical, management and financial resources in new ways to achieve certain public agency objectives such as greater cost and schedule certainty, supplementing in-house staff, innovative technology applications, specialized expertise or access to private capital. The private partner can expand its business opportunities in return for assuming the new or expanded responsibilities and risks.
PPPs provide benefits by allocating the responsibilities to the party – either public or private – that is best positioned to control the activity that will produce the desired result. With PPPs, this is accomplished by specifying the roles, risks and rewards contractually, so as to provide incentives for maximum performance and the flexibility necessary to achieve the desired results.

Some of the primary reasons for public agencies to enter into public-private partnerships include:
  • Accelerating the implementation of high priority projects by packaging and procuring services in new ways;
  • Turning to the private sector to provide specialized management capacity for large and complex programs;
  • Enabling the delivery of new technology developed by private entities;
  • Drawing on private sector expertise in accessing and organizing the widest range of private sector financial resources;
  • Encouraging private entrepreneurial development, ownership, and operation of highways and/or related assets; and
  • Allowing for the reduction in the size of the public agency and the substitution of private sector resources and personnel

                                            PPP Models in practice
There are range of PPP models that allocate a responsibilities and  risks between the public and private partners in different ways. The following terms are commonly used to describe typical partnership agreement.
(a)Build Operate and Transfer (BOT) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire undertakes the construction, including financing, of a given infrastructure facility, and the operation and maintenance thereof. The concessionaire operates the facility over a fixed term during which it is allowed to charge facility users appropriate tolls, fees, rentals, and charges not exceeding these proposed in its bid or as negotiated and incorporated in the contract to enable the concessionaire to recover its investment, and operating and maintenance expenses in the project. The concessionaire transfers the facility to the Government Agency or Local Government unit concerned at the end of the fixed term.
(b)Build-Own-Operate-and-Transfer (BOOT) : a project based on the granting of a concession by a Principal (the Union or Government or a local authority) to the concessionaire, who is responsible for the construction, financing, operation and maintenance of a facility over the period of the concession before finally transferring the facility, at no cost to the Principal, a fully operational facility. During the concession period the promoter owns and operates the facility and collects revenue in order to repay the financing and investment costs, maintain and operate the facility and make a margin of profit.
(c)Build-and-Transfer (BT) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire undertakes the financing and construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the Government Agency or Local Government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed Schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon. This arrangement may be employed in the construction of any infrastructure or development project, including critical facilities which, for security or strategic reasons, must be operated directly by the Government.
(d)Build-Own-and-Operate (BOO) : a contractual arrangement whereby a concessionaire is authorized to finance, construct, own operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to recover its total investment , operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tolls, fees, rentals or other charges from facility users.
(e)Build-Lease-and-Transfer (BLT) : a contractual arrangement whereby a concessionaire is authorized to finance and construct an infrastructure or development facility and upon its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned on a lease arrangement for fixed period after which ownership of the facility is automatically transferred to the government agency or local government unit concerned.
(f)Build-Transfer-and-Operate (BTO) : a contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure facility to a private entity such that the concessionaire builds the facility on turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks. Once the facility is commissioned satisfactorily, title is transferred to the implementing agency. The private entity however, operates the facility on behalf of the implementing agency under an agreement
(g)Design Built Finance Operate (DBFO) : a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire is authorized to detailed design work, which will reduce time and money required for project preparation.  The states could then bid the project based on the Feasibility Report instead of the Detailed Project Report.  For this, appropriately drafted TOR for Feasibility Report consultants and also a Manual of Specification and Standard for BOT Projects needed to be adopted by the States.
(h)Contract-Add-and-Operate (CAO): a contractual arrangement whereby the concessionaire adds to an existing infrastructure facility which it is renting from the government. It operates the expended project over an agreed franchise period. There may, or may not be, a transfer arrangement in regard to the facility.
(i)Develop-Operate-and-Transfer(DOT) : a contractual arrangement whereby favourable conditions external to anew infrastructure project which is to be built by a private project proponent are integrated into the arrangement by giving that entity the right to develop adjoining property, and thus, enjoy some of the benefits the investment creates such as higher property or rent values.

(j)Lease Management Agreement : an agreement whereby the State Government, the government agency or the specified agency leases a project owned by the state government, the government agency, or, as the case may be, the specified government agency to the person who is permitted to operate and maintain the project for the period specified in the agreement.

Project Summary(Andhra Pradesh State Level)

Monday, October 10, 2011

2011 NOBEL PRIZE WINNERS

The Nobel Prize in Physics
Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt, Adam G. Riess
The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann, Ralph M. Steinman
The Nobel Prize in Literature
Tomas Tranströmer
The Nobel Peace Prize
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee, Tawakkul Karman
The Prize in Economic Sciences
Thomas J. Sargent, Christopher A. Sims

Fossils of Largest Cheetah Found in the Republic of Georgia

Scientists found the fossils of largest known cheetah which roamed the planet Earth thousands of years ago. Scientists discovered the fossils at a 1.8 million year old site in Dmanisi in the Republic of Georgia.  The cheetah is believed to be weighed about 110 kg, about double the weight of its modern cousin.

The area, where the discovery was made, was once a forested valley floor whose edges blurred into savanna and grasslands.

Chhattisgarh to have 9 New Districts, Taking the Total Number of Districts in the State to 27

Chhattisgarh will have 9 new districts with effect from January 2012, taking the  total number of districts in the state to 27. These districts will be Sukma, Kondagaon, Gariabandh, Balodabazar, Balod, Bemetera, Mungeli, Surajpur and Balrampur. 
This was announced by the  Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Raman Singh on 15 August 2011 while addressing the people on the occasion of the Independence Day at the police parade ground in Raipur. This step will be a mile stone in the administrative history of the state.

2011 CHAMPIONS LEAGUE T20 QUESTIONS

In which country 2011 CLT20 tournament was held?
India

In which cities 2011 CLT20 matches were played?
Bangalore,Hyderabad and Chennai

Which 3 Indian teams qualified for the main tournament?
Mumbai Indians, Royal Challengers Bangalore and Chennai Super Kings

Which Indian team was knocked out in the Robin Round format of 2011 CLt20?
Kolkata Knight Riders

Who is leading Mumbai Indian team in CLT20 2011?
Harbhajan Singh

Which team were the defending champions?
Chennai Super Kings

Which team had scored the fastest hundred in 2011 CLT20 tournament?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)

In how many overs RCB team scored the fastest hundred of the tournament?
8.4 overs

Which cricketer holds the record for most runs scored in a CLT20 tournament?
David Warner

Which cricketer had hit six on the last ball of the match to make team RCB qualify for 2011 CLT20 semifinal?
Arun Kartik

In which city the first semi final of 2011 CLT20 was played?
Bengaluru

Which two teams played the first semifinal of 2011 CLT20 at Bangalore?
RCB and New South Wales

Which team won the first semifinal played at Bengaluru to qualify for 2011 CLT20 final?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB)

Which cricketer had hit 11 sixes in the first semifinal match against RCB?
David Warner

Who was awarded Man of the Match in first semifinal match played between RCB and NSW?
Virat Kohli for his knock of 84 runs in just 49 balls

In which city was CLT20 second semifinal played?
Chennai

Which two teams played the second semifinal match of CLT20 2011?
Mumbai Indians and Somerset

Which team won the second semifinal match played at Chennai?
Mumbai Indians

Who was awarded the Man of the match in the second semifinal of 2011 CLT20?
Lasith Malinga for claiming 4 wickets

Which two Indian teams played the 2011 CLT20 final match?
Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) vs Mumbai Indians (MI)

On which date was 2011 CLT20 final match played?
9th October,2011

In which city was the CLT20 2011 final match held?
Chennai

Who won the CLT20 2011 title?
Mumbai Indians


Who was awarded man of the match in CLT20 2011 finals?
Habhajan Singh


Who was awarded man of the series in CLT20 2011?
Malinga

Sunday, October 9, 2011

Zonal Councils

The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States.  This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities and bitterness as a result of re-organisation of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the very fabric of our nation. As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high level advisory forum should be set up to minimise the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State and Centre-State environment with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced socio economic development of the respective zones.

COMPOSITION OF ZONAL COUNCILS

In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:

    The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
    The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;
    The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
    The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli; and
    The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December, 2002. Consequently, action for exclusion of Sikkim as member of Eastern Zonal Council has been initiated by Ministry of Home Affairs.

COMMITTIEES OF ZONAL COUNCILS

Each Zonal Council has set up a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member States of their respective Zonal Councils. These Standing Committees meet from time to time to resolve the issues or to do necessary ground work for further meetings of the Zonal Councils. Senior Officers of the Planning Commission and other Central Ministries are also associated with the meetings depending upon necessity. :

ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE OF ZONAL COUNCILS

(i)   Chairman
       The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
(ii)   Vice Chairman
        The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding  office for a period of one year at a time.
(iii)   Members
        Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
(iv)   Advisers
        One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone;

Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
.

ROLE AND OBJECTIVES OF THE ZONAL COUNCILS

The Zonal Councils provide an excellent forum where irritants between Centre and States and amongst States can be resolved through free and frank discussions and consultations. Being advisory bodies, there is full scope for free and frank exchange of views in their meetings. Though there are a large number of other fora like the National Development Council, Inter State Council, Governor’s/Chief Minister’s Conferences and other periodical high level conferences held under the auspices of the Union Government, the Zonal Councils are different, both in content and character. They are regional fora of cooperative endeavour for States linked with each other economically, politically and culturally. Being compact high level bodies, specially meant for looking after the interests of respective zones, they are capable of focusing attention on specific issues taking into account regional factors, while keeping the national perspective in view.

The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are as under :

    Bringing out national integration;
    Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies;
    Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences; and
    Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.

FUNCTIONS OF THE COUNCILS


Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which some or all of the States represented in that Council, or the Union and one or more of the States represented in that Council, have a common interest and advise the Central Government and the Government of each State concerned as to the action to be taken on any such matter.

In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to,--

    any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning;
    any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport; and
    any matter connected with, or arising out of, the re-organisation of the States under the States Reorganisation Act.

MEETINGS OF ZONAL COUNCILS

As per Section 17(1) of States Re-organisation Act, each Zonal Council shall meet at such time as the Chairman of the Council may appoint in this behalf. Since their inception in 1957, the Zonal Councils have met 106 times. The last meetings of the Zonal Councils were held as under:


Name of the Council      Place of  meeting      Date of the meeting

 1.Eastern Zonal Council      Ranchi      30.05.2005

 2.Western Zonal Council      Panaji          20.09.2006

 3.Northern Zonal Council      Shimla      25.10.2005

 4.Southern Zonal Council      Hyderabad      12.02.2007

 5.Central Zonal Council      Bhopal      24.05.2005

Deliberations at Zonal Councils have led to important initiatives in regard to Internal Security, Coastal Security, Mega City Policing, Sharing of information on crime and criminals by the concerned states, Jail Reforms, Communal Harmony and the resolution of the socio-economic problems like trafficking in women and children, National Disaster Management and strengthening the preparedness for disaster management, implementation of Right to information Act, Implementation of National Employment Guarantee Bill, Coastal Secretary and Good Governance etc.

SECRETARIAT OF ZONAL COUNCILS

The Secretariat of the Zonal Councils has also been created by the statue itself. Section 19 of the States Re-organisation Act deals with the staff of Zonal Councils whereas Section 20 deals with office of the Council and its administrative expenses.

(i) Office of Zonal Councils:

As per Section 20(1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 the office of Zonal Council for each zone shall be located at such place within the zone as may be determined by the Council. However, since 1963, a single Secretariat looking after the affairs of all Zonal Councils is functioning from New Delhi. The Secretariat is located 9/11, Jamnagar House, New Delhi and functioning under administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.

The Zonal Councils Secretariat explores centre-State, inter-State and zonal issues which are to be deliberated by the Councils or the Standing Committees. The Secretariat also follows up on the recommendations of the Councils/Standing Committees, if necessary drawing the attention of the Chairman and other Central Ministers/Chief Ministers.

(ii) Organisational set up of Zonal Council Secretariat

According to Section 19 (1) of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, each Zonal Council shall have a secretarial staff consisting of a Secretary, a Joint Secretary and such other officers as the Chairman may consider necessary to appoint

The Chief Secretaries of the States represented in such Zonal Councils act as the Secretary of the respective Council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.

The Joint Secretary of Zonal Councils is as a Director Level officer from All India Services or Central Secretariat Services.

Family Courts

The immediate reason for setting up of family courts was the mounting pressures from several women's associations, welfare organisations and individuals for establishment of special courts with a view to providing a forum for speedy settlement of family-related disputes. Emphasis was laid on a non-adversarial method of resolving family disputes and promoting conciliation and securing speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
In 1975, the Committee on the Status of Women recommended that all matters concerning the ‘family' should be dealt with separately. The Law Commission in its 59th report (1974) had also stressed that in dealing with disputes concerning the family, the court ought to adopt and approach radical steps distinguished from the existing ordinary civil proceedings and that these courts should make reasonable efforts at settlement before the commencement of the trial. Gender-sensitized personnel including judges, social workers and other trained staff should hear and resolve all the family-related issues through elimination of rigid rules of procedure. The Code of Civil Procedure was amended to provide for a special procedure to be adopted in suits or proceedings relating to matters concerning the family. However the courts continue to deal with family disputes in the same manner as other civil matters and the same adversary approach prevails. Hence a great need was felt, in the public interest, to establish family courts for speedy settlement of family disputes.
The Family Courts Act which was passed in 1984 was part of the trend of legal reforms concerning women. The President gave his assent to the Family Courts Act on September 14, 1984. The Act provides for a commencement provision which enables the Central Government to bring the Act into force in a State by
a notification in the Official Gazette, and different dates may be appointed for different States. This Act has 6 chapters under various heads such as Preliminary, Family Courts, Jurisdiction, Procedure, Appeals and Revisions and Miscellaneous.

The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs and for matters connected therewith. Under Section 3(1)(a) of
the Family Courts Act, it is mandatory for the State Governments to set up a Family Court for every area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million. In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it necessary. Following are the matters which can be filed in the Family Courts-
1. Decree for nullity of marriage
2. Restitution of Conjugal rights
3. Judicial Separation
4. Divorce
5. Declaration of marital status of any person
6. Matrimonial property matters
7. Claim of maintenance
8. Guardianship
9. Custody of children
10. Access of children
11. Application for injunction in matrimonial matters.

A scheme of Central financial assistance was started in 2002-03 for setting of Family Courts. As per the scheme Rs. 10 lakhs per court are provided by the Department of Justice for setting up of Family Courts with equal matching share from States. Under Non-Plan, funds to the tune of Rs. 5 lakh per court are provided for running expenditure of the Family Court. .

The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women has recommended that Family Courts may be set up in each district. All the State Governments/UT Administrations have been requested to set up Family Courts in each district.

 As per latest available information, 190 Family Courts have been set up in the country and a statement showing Number of Family Courts functioning in the States is enclosed.

NO. OF FAMILY COURTS ESTABLISHED IN THE COUNTRY
S.No. Name of the State Total number of Family Courts
1. Andhra Pradesh - 8
2. Assam - 5
3. Bihar- 31
4. Chhattisgarh - 11
5. Delhi - 15
6. Gujarat - 7
7. Jammu & Kashmir - 1
8. Jharkhand - 6
9. Karnataka - 12
10. Kerala - 16
11. Madhya Pradesh - 7
12. Maharashtra - 18
13. Manipur - 2
14. Nagaland - 2
15. Orissa - 2
16. Pondicherry - 1
17. Punjab - 2
18. Rajasthan - 6
19. Sikkim - 1
20. Tamil Nadu - 6
21. Tripura - 3
22. Uttar Pradesh - 14
23. Uttaranchal - 7
24. West Bengal -7
Total - 190

Saturday, October 8, 2011

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs FOR APPSC GROUP-II EXAM

1. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s nuclear power generation is only about 1800 MW against an installed capacity of 4120 MW.
2. The present Indo-US Civil nuclear deal is valid for 40 years and extendable by another 10 years.
3. Out of its 22 operating /under construction nuclear facilities, India will place 14 under IAEA safeguard.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The Kyoto protocol has put in place three flexibility mechanisms to reduce emission of Green House Gases.
(b) The three mechanisms are joint implementation, Emissions Trading and Clean develoment.
(c) These three mechanism are based on the premise that reduction of emissions in any part of the globe will have the same desired effect on the atmosphere.
(d) None of the above

3. Consider the following statements :
1. The women’s reservation Bill (108th Amendment) a proposed legislation to reserve 33.3% of seats in Parliament and State legislature for women.
2. In case of seats reserved for SC-ST candidates, 33.3% would have to be reserved for women.
3. The reservation of seats is proposed to be on rotation basis, which means that the 33% seats reserved in one election would lease to be reserved in the next election.
4. The provision for reservation is proposed to be in place for 15 years.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

4. Consider the following statements :
1. Human Development Index is composed from statistics for life expectancy, education and standard of living.
2. These were devised and launched by pakistani Economist Mahbub-ul in 1990.
3. Human Poverty Index-1 represents a multidimensional alternative to the $1.25 a day poverty measure.

4. The millennium Development Goals(MDGs) are eight turnaround goals that provide concrete, numerical benchmarks for tackling extreme poverty in its many dimensions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above

5. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Nuclear Liability Bill 2010?
(a) The nuclear liability Bill 2010 is introduce to define nuclear incidents and nuclear damage, nuclear fuel, material and nuclear installations and also operators of nuclear installations.
(b) It creates authorities who will assess claims and distribute compensation in case of nuclear damage.
(c) The Bill States that the total liability for nuclear incident shall not exceed the rupee equivalent of 300 million special Drawing Rights (Approximately Rs. 2100 crore at current exchange rates.)
(d) The nuclear damage claims commission would be chaired by prime minister of India.

6. Consider the following statements regarding
Common Wealth Games :
1. The Commonwealth Games are a unique, world class, multi-sport event held once every four years amongst the member countries and territories of the Commonwealth.
2. The three core value of the commonwealth games are humanity, equality and destiny.
3. The Commonwealth Games Federation has 71 member nations and territories called Commonwealth Games Association which include India.
4. The Commonwealth Games formerly known as the British Empire Games, were first held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

7. Consider the following statements regarding Commonwealth Games :
1. Queen’s Baton Relay is first started in 1958 in Cardiff, Wales and has since then been the curtain raiser to every Commonwealth Game.
2. The Queens Baton Relay 2010 Delhi started from Buckingham Palace on 29 October, 2009 and end 340 days later at the opening ceremony of the XIX commonwealth Games 2010 Delhi on 3 October 2010.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements regarding Direct
Tax Code :
1. In the Union Budget 2005-06, the Government had announced its intention to revise, simplify, rationalize and consolidate laws and procedure relating to direct taxes.
2. Direct tax include income tax, dividend distribution tax, fring benefit tax and wealth tax.
Which of the above statements is/ae correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The Government has constituted a unique Identification Authority of India as an attached office under?
(a) Home Ministry
(b) Planning commission
(c) Prime Minister Office
(d) Human Resource Development Ministry

10. Consider the following statements :
1. Some 600 million Indians do not have access to electricity and about 700 million Indian use biomass as their primary energy resource for cooking and ensuring life line.
2. since India is short of uranium, the first phase plants cannot exceeds 10,000MW unless imported uranium is available.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. The Integrated Energy policy report is bought out by?
(a) Ministry of petroleum and Natural Gas.
(b) Ministry of power.
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(d) Planning Commission.

12. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Energy Security.
1. The Integrated energy policy report estimates
that in an 8% GDP growth Scenario, India’s total commercial energy requirments would be in the range of 1514mtoe (million tones of oil equivalen)t to 1856 Mtoe by 2031.
2. TERI estimates indicate an import dependency of 78% for coal, 91% for oil and 34% for gas by year 2031.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuti Karan Yojna (RGGVY).
(a) RGGVY was launched in 2005.
(b) It aim for electrification of about 1.15 lakh unelectrified villages.
(c) To provide free electricity connection to 2.34 crore Below Poverty House hold (BPL).
(d) The target year of achieving these targets is 2015.

14. Consider the following statements :
1. Lighting a Billion lives compaign aims to bring light into the live of one billion rural people by replacing the Kerosene and Paraffin lanterns with solar lighting devices.
2. Over 1.6 billion people in the World lac access to electricity, roughly 25% are in India alone.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements regarding biofuels in India.
1. In the National Biofuel policy the Government of India has set a target of a minimum 20% ethanol blended petrol and diesel across the country by 2017.
2. Biofuel development in India centers mainly around the cultivation and processing of Jatropha plant seeds to give biodiesel and producing ethanol from Sugarcane.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s forest cover accounts for 20.6% of the total geographical are of the country as of 2005.
2. Estimates show that the annual CO2 removals by India’s forest and tree cover is enough to neutralize 11.25% of India’s total GHG emissions (CO2 equivalent) at 1994 levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India has the 2nd largest arable land (184 million hectares) in the world.
(b) India also has the third largest irrigated land (55 million hectares) in the world.
(c) India is the largest producer of wheat (72 million tones) accounting for nearly 15% of global wheat production.
(d) India is also the largest producer of pulses (15 million tones) according for nearly 21% of global pulse production.

18. The largest livestock population in the world is in which country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) USA

19. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) India is the largest producer of milk (90 million tones).
(b) India is the largest producer of tea, accounting for nearly 28% of the global tea production.
(c) India is the largest producer of rice (92 million tones) accounting for nearly 22% of global rice production.
(d) India is the second largest producer of fruits
(50 million tones) and vegetables (100 million tones).

20. Which country is the largest producer of world’s best basmati rice?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh

21. Consider the following statements.
1. India is the second largest producer of Sugarcane, accounting for nearly 21% of the global sugarcane production.
2. India is the largest producer and exporter of spices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Who was headed the National knowledge commission (NKC) that have dealt with various issues affecting the higher education system in the country?
(a) Sam Pitroda
(b) Professor Yashpal
(c) Kapil Sibbal
(d) Professor B. K. Pal

23. Consider the following statements.
1. Indian economy in terms of purchasing power parity with an equivalent GDP of US $3.666 trillion is the fourth largest economy in the world after USA, China and Japan.
2. In US dollar terms, it is the twelfth largest economy in the world.
3. The Indian economy is expected to grow with more than or about 5% growth till 2050 as projected by BRIC report.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

24. Consider the following statements :
1. Agriculture in India accounts for 52% of employment 12% of national export and 17.8% of GDP.
2. As per the 2001 census India has a BPL population of roughly 260 million and 300 million school droup out in the age group of 6 to 16.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2

25. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the 11th five year plan document, only 2% existing workshop in India has skill training, while in Korea it is 90%.
2. Government has set a target of creating 500 million skilled person by 2022.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. Akshay 1. Karela
B. Bhoomi 2. Karnataka
C. Digital Gangetic Plane 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Drishtee 4. Haryana and Punjab
Codes :
     A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 1 3 2

27. Match the following :
List-I (Project) List-II (State)
A. E-Choupal 1. Punjab
B. Gyandoot 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Rural e-seva 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. TARA haat 4. Karnataka
Codes :
      A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

28. Consider the following statements :
1. Tourism sector accounts for 5.92% of India’s GDP, provides employment to 49.8 million people.
2. AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Sidha and Homeopathy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Sasan, Tilaiyadam and Krishnapatnam, Ultra Megha Power Project is constructed by which company?
(a) Reliance Power
(b) Tata Power
(c) NTPC
(d) NHPC

30. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Sasan 1. maharastra
B. Sunderharh 2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Mundra 3. Gujrat
D. Girye     4. Orissa
Codes :
     A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

31. Match the following :
List-I (UMPP) List-II (States)
A. Tadri                   1. Karnataka
B. Krishnapatnam    2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Akal tara             3. Chattisgarh
Codes :
     A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2

32. Match the following :
List-I (E-Government  List-II (State)
Project)
A. Akashganga             1. Maharastra
B. Tata Kisan Sansars   2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Gyandoot               3. Madhya pradesh
D. Lokmitra                 4. Gujrat
Codes :
     A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1

33. Which company has the largest market share in the Indian mobile market?
(a) Bharti Airtel
(b) Vodafone
(c) Idea
(d) Reliance

34. In India the game of snakes and Ladders was created in the 13th century by?
(a) Poet Kalidas
(b) Saint Gyandev
(c) Poet Surdas
(d) Poet Tulsidas

35. Consider the following statements :
1. Governments has set a target for providing mobile coverage to 90% geographical area and setting up 500 million connections by the year 2010.
2. The India Telecommunication network with 430 million connection is the third largest in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (a)
2. (d) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (c)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (a)
4. (d) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (b)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. c)
6. (d) 16. (c) 26. (a)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (a)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (c)
9. (b) 19. (c) 29. (a)
10. (c) 20. (a) 30. (c)

Monday, October 3, 2011

CURRENT AFFAIRS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR APPSC GROUP-II

1. Consider the following statements :
1. The yonex- sunrise Indian open badminton Grand prix Gold was held in Chennai.
2. 19 countries are participating in the tournament, carrying a prize money of $ 150000.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements :
1. Vishwanathan Anand retained the FIDE World Chess championship, defeating BulgarianVeselin Topalov.
2. Anand become the undisputed World Chess champion after winning an eight player tournament in 2007.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar won his first ever Gold Medal in the Asian Wrestling held in New Delhi.
2. Sushil won the bronze medal in the Olympic game of 2008.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements :
1. India and Pakistan were declared joint Champions of the Sultan Azlan Shah hockey tourament after the final was abandoned due to rain.
2. The sultan Azlan Shah hockey tournament was first started in 1983 in Indonesia.
Which of the above statements is/areincorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafal Nadal beat Roger Federer to win the Madrid Masters.
2. Nadal collected his 18th Career Masters 1000 title, one more than Adre Agassi and two ahead of Federer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Rafal Nadal won the French Open by defeating Robin Sodeling.
(b) Nadal has won the title fifth time, this has put him second on the all time list of French open winners, one behind Bjorn Borg.
(c) It was also first time he had won the French open title without dropping a set.
(d) In men’s doubles Daniel Mestor and Nenad Zimonjic beat Leander paes and Lukas Dlouhy.

7. With regard to African World Cup history. Which was the first of Africa’s team to appear in the FIFA World Cup?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Tunisia
(c) Egypt
(d) Morocco

8. Which player is not only the best ever scorer with 15 goals but also the player who has scored in the
most number of matches, 11.
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Ronaldinio
(c) Jurgan Klinsmann
(d) Kocksis

9. Consider the following statements :
1. Brazil have won the world cups highest number of times that is 19. After that Italy and Germany in 17 and Argentina in 15.
2. In the 2010 FIFA World Cup Slovakia was the only debutant country which participated in the tournament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Who won the $ 120000 Yonex sunrise India open Grand prix gold badminton championships?
(a) Saina Nehwal
(b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Ashwini Pannapa
(d) Choo Wong mew

11. Consider the following statements :
1. Saina Nehwal completed a spectacular hat-trick of titles by Clinching the Indonesia open super series.
2. Before clinching the Indonesia open super series, she won the Indian open grand prix and then the Singapore open super series.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) Sharad Pawer assumed office as president of International Cricket Council (ICC) at its annual conference in Singapore.
(b) Mr. Sharad Pawer succeeded Mr. David Morgan.
(c) Mr. Pawer is only the second Indian, after Jagmohan Dalmiya to have become the highest executive of the World Cricket body.
(d) He became the 5th President of the ICC for a two year term.

13. Which player have won the $ 1.5 million women singles title at Wimbledon?
(a) Venus Williams
(b) Serena Williams
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Kristyna Pliskova

14. Who won the Wimbeldon men’s single title?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Tomas Berdych
(c) Marton Fucsonics
(d) Benjamin Mitchell

15. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related Fields)
A. Deepak Mondal 1. Swimming
B. Krishna Poonia 2. Athelets
C. Sandeep Singh 3. Foot Baller
D. Rehan Poncha 4. Hockey
Codes :
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 2 3 1

16. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Jhulan Goswami 1. Boxing
B. Jagseer Singh 2. Yachting
C. Sanjeev Rajput 3. Aralympics
D. Dinesh Kumar 4. Shooting
Codes :
     A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1

17. Match the following :
List-I (Players) List-II (Related fields)
A. Satish Pal         1. Athletics
B. Kuldeep Singh  2. Wrestling
C. Anita Chanu     3. Weight Lifting
Codes :
     A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3

18. Which state has won the 64th Senior National football championship ?
(a) Punjab
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal

19. Who vbecame the first Indian and just the sixth- Asian born player to win on the PGA Tour at the wyndham championship?
(a) Arjun Atwal
(b) Vivek Inamdar
(c) Rahul Deshraj
(d) Non of the above

20. Which country has won the women’s hockey world Cup ?
(a) Netherland
(b) Argentina
(c) England
(d) Australia

21. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar becoming the first Indian to win a world wrestling championship gold medal
2. Sushil already hold’s the Asian and commonwealth titles.
Which of the above Statement is/are in correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. The world Squash Federation (WSF) has decided to revive the squash world cup after a lapse of more than a decade. Last held in Eqypt in 1999, the next edition will be held in 2011 in ?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chennai
(d) Hydrabad.

23. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafael Nadal has completed a career Grand slam title by winning his first US open crown.
2. Nadal became the seventh man to complete a career Grand slam by wining wimbledon and the US, French and Australian open titles.
3. After winning wimbledon and the French open, Nadal joined Federer, Laver and Pete Sampras as the only man to win three slams in a row in the open era that began in 1968.
4. Presently Nadal is the world No 1 men tennis player.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 3, and 4
(b) 2, and 4,
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

24. Which Indian Player has been chosnen by the International Cricket Council as its ambassadors for the year 2010-11 ?
(a) Mahendar Singh Dhoni
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Virender Sehwag

25. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil kumar Presented the Queen’s baton that had traversed 190,000 kilometres, to prince charles who declared the Games open.
2. Jacques Rogge is the present president of the International olympic Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Non of the above

26. Who have won the India’s first ever medal in the
20km walks in the common wealth Games history.
(a) Ravinder Singh
(b) Katulu Ravi Kumar
(c) Harminder Singh
(d) Sanjay Kumar

27. Consider the following statements :
1. Fifty two years after the great Milkha Singh gave the Country its first triumph in Cardiff,Krishna Poonia brought its second gold inthe women’s discuss.
2. With harwant kaour and Seema Antil taking the Silver and bronze, India Celebrated its first sweep of all medals in Common wealth Games history
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Who become world no. 1 golf player after a long Tiger wood’s five year reign ?
(a) Lee west wood
(b) Martin Kaymer
(c) Dammy Abogunloko.
(d) Lee-Tsen-Tang.

29. World No. 1 tennis player Rafael Nadal of spain inaugurated the Rafael Ndal Tennis Academy at the
Rural Development Trust (RDT) in ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Anantpur
(d) Pune

30. Who is the present No 1 women tennis player ?
(a) Coroline Wozniacki.
(b) Kim Clijsters.
(c) Vera Zvonareva
(d) Sercna Williams.

31. Which of the statement is incorrect
1. Virdhawal Khade won India’s first medal in swimming after a gap of 24 years in the Asian Games.
2. Khan Singh had won the last swimming medal for India, a silver at the 1986 Asian Games in Seoul.
3. The only gold for Indian Swimming had come through Sachin Nag in the inaugural edition of the Asiad in Delhi in 1951,
4. Virdhawal Khade won the medal in the 200m butterfly event.

32. Consider the following statements :
1. Somdev Devvarman won India’s first gold medal in Asian Games tennis Singles.
2. This is the first time Since Japan’s Toshiro Sakai in the 1974 Tehran Asiad that a player has
swept both Singles and doubles gold’s at the same games.
Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. The 16th Asian Games was held in ?
(a) Shanghai
(b) Beijing
(c) Guanghou
(d) Zhanjiang

34. Where was the world youth chess championship
held, Indian won three Silver and three bronze
medals in that championship.
(a) Tirana (Albania)
(b) Nis (Serbia)
(c) Por to Carras (Greece)
(d) Bern (Switzerland)

35. Consider the following statements :
1. Indian Poultry giant Venkateshwara Hatcheris has become the first Indian group to own any English Premier league.
2. They have won the English Premier League footbal club Liver pool.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c)
3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (c)
4. (d) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (c)
5. (c) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (a)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c)
7. (c) 17. (a) 27. (c)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (a)
9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (c)
10. (a) 20. (b) 30. (a)

Sunday, October 2, 2011

CURRENT AFFAIRS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR APPSC GROUP-II


1. Match the following
List I (well known Person)                         List II (Releated field)
A. Sant Sing Chatwal                                1. Businessman
B. Ilaiyaraaja                                             2. Music Composer
C.Vinid Banga                                           3. Hotelier
D. Zohra Segal                                           4. Artiste.
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 4 3 1


2. Match the following
List I (well known person)                         List II (Related Fiedl)
A.Anil Bordia                                            1. Environmentalist.
B. B.M. Hegde.                                         2. Nuclear Scientist.
C. Bikash Sinha                                         3. Educationist
D. Ranjit Bhargava                                     4. Cardiologist.
     A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1

3. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                     List II (Related Field)
A. Bipin Chandra                                    1. Historian
B. N. Vaghul                                           2 Music Composer
C. N.M. Shroff                                        3. Bamker
D. Shrivias Khale.                                    4. Eye Speualist
    A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 4 3 2

4. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                         List II (Related Field)
A. Ustand Sultan Khan                               1. yurveda practioner
B.Kumudini Lakhia                                     2. Panchavadya Exponent
C.K.N.Marar                                             3. Sarangi player
D. E.T. Narayanan                                     4. Kathak exponent
     A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

5. Who won the commonwealth writer’s prize for 2010 for his epic tale solo set in communist and post communist Bulgaria.
(a) Rana Dasgupta
(b) Shisir Bose
(c) RanjanMukherjee
(d) Bilal Sangupta

6. Consider the following statements:
1. Social activist Ela Bhatt wins the Niwano peace prize for 2010 for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in india.
2. In 1972, She establish the self-enployed women’s association (SEWA)
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Who won the Britain’s 30,000 highly regarded literary honor forewomen writers, that is Orange prize?
(a) Barbara Kingsolver.
(b) Hilarymantel
(c) ZoePlummer
(d) Kirsty cleaver

8. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                     List II (Related Field)
A. Omkar shrikant Dadarkar                 1. Shehnai
B. MuradAli                                          2. Sarangi
C. V.Balaji                                            3. Hindustani vocal
D. Sanjeev shankar                                4.Mridangam
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 2 3 4

9. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                     List II (Related Field)
A. Manisa Nayak                                   1. Bharatanatyam
B. Indu devi                                            2. Odissi
C. Lingaraj pradhan                                3. Kathak
D. Ragini chander                                    4. Manipuri shekar
     A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 2 1 4

10. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                                 List II (Related Field)
A. Mysore                                                            A. Chandan Kumar
1. Historian
B. Manjula                                                            B. Murthy
2. Mohiniatan
C. Chinta                                                              R. Balakrishna
3. Kuchi pudi
     A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1

11. Consider the following statements.
1. This year’s(2010) Lokmanya Tilak Award was given to sheila dikshit.
2. The award consists of a goldmedal, a memento , a citation and Rs 1 lakh.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Consider the following statements :
1. The jantar mantar in Jaipur is now a world heritagemonument.
2. It was built bymaharaja Sawari Jai Sing II in the 18th century.
3. The samrat yantra in Jaipur is one of the largest sundials in the world.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of the above

13. Who has been selected by the international mathematical union for the Leelavathi Award in recoginition of his out standing contribution at public outreach in mathemetics.?
(a) Simon Lehna Sing
(b) P.J. Cherin
(c) Harish Damodaran
(d) Raman K. Singh

14. Who has been chosen for the shram Ratna for 2008, the country’s highest Award given by the Ministry of Labour and Employment?
(a) Nagaraja
(b) V.E. Manohar
(c) R. Lalitha
(d) P.S. Das

15. Whowas given the TagoreAward 2010. the award instituted by the Indian Institute of planning and Management (IIPM), CarriesRs 51 lakh in cash, a goldmedal, a citation and a shawl.
(a) PallavBagla
(b) Shreeram Lagoo.
(c) IromSharmila.
(d) Kishori sing

16. Consider the following statements
1. Malayalam literateur O.N.V. kurup and urdu poet Akhlaq khan Shahryar were chosen for the Jnanpith Award for 2007 and 2008.
2. The selection board chaired by Odiya writer and Janapith winner Sitakant Mahapatra made the choicess for the top literary awards.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Pride of IndiaAward is given to?
(a) Montek singh ahluwalia
(b) Sir Mota sing
(c) Lord swraj paul
(d) Dr.Manmohan sing

18. Consider the following statements ?
1. For the first time three women figure in the list of nine scientists chosen for the presitigious shanti swarup Bhatnagar prize 2010.
2. The award carries a cash prize ofRs 5 lakh, a citation and a plaque and theAward is given by the council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
Which of the above statements is / are incorrect
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

19. Match the following
List I (Institution)                                 List II (Location)
A. National Centre                             1. Faridabad for cell Science
B. Tata Institute of                              2. Mumbai Fundamental Research.
C. Indian oil Corporation’s                  3. Pune Research and Development Centre.
      A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2

20. Consider the following statements :
1. President presented the prestigious Lal Bahadur ShastriNational Award for excellence in public administration, academia and management toAruna Roy.
2. TheAward carries a prize of Rs 5 lakh, a plaque and a citation.
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a) 1Only
(b) 2Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Non of the above

21. Who is the winner of 50,000Man Booker Prize?
(a) Howard Jcobson’s novel the Finkler question.
(b) TomMc Carthy’s novel C.
(c) EmmaDonoghue’s novel Room.
(d) Non of the above

22. Consider the following statements
1. President presented the Dadasaheb phalke Award to D. Ramanaidue at the 57th National film awards 2009.
2. Dr. Ramanaidu holds the Guinness Record for producing the highest number of films in his career.
3. Amitabh Bachchan was awarded for the best actor for his role in Paa. this is the fourth national award for Mr. Bachchan
4. Kutty Srank (Malayalam)Won the top honour for the best feature film.
Which of the above statement is in correct.?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Non of the above

23. Match the following
List I (Art Forms)                             List II (Parent States)
A. Mudiyettu (ritual dance)                 1. Kerala
B. Chhau dance                                  2. Estern India.
C. Kalbeli folk songs                          3. Rajasthan
      A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1

24. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) The Mudiyettu, the ritual dance drama annually performed after the harvest of summer crops in kerala.
(b) The chhau dance , known for its crafted marks and mock combat movements is prevalent int he tribal parts of Orissa, jharkhand, andWest Bengal.
(c) Kalbeli community are the snake charmers from rajasthan.
(d) The fifth session of the UNESCO Intergoverumental committee for the safeguarding of the intangible curltural heritage was held in Newdelhi.



25. Consider the following statements
1. The 2010 SASTRA Ramanujan prizewas given to Wei Zhang.
2. Establish in 2005, this $ 10000 annual prize is for outstanding contributions by very young mathematician. the age limit for the prize has been set at 32 because ramanujan achived so much in his biref life of 32 years. Which of the above statements is/are correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Consider the following statements
1. Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of the united states and British- cypriot Christopher pissarides won the 2010 Nobel economics prize for work on why supply and demand do not always meet in the labove market and elsewhere.
2. Last year, Elinor Ostrom the first women to ever win such a prize.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Consider the following statements
1. Amecircan Richard Heck and Japanese reseanchers Ei-ichi Negishi andAkira Sujuki won the 2010 nobel prize in chemistry for developing a chemicalmethod that has allowed scientists to test cancer drugs and make thinner computer sereens.
2. The Awards were established by swedish industrialist Alfred Nobel the inventor of dynamite. and the awards are always handed out on Dec, 10 the anniversary of his death in 1896.
which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Consider the following statements.
1. Andre Geim and konstantin Novoselvo were named joint winners of this year’s Nobel prize for physics for their “ground breaking” work on experiments with graphene, a new form of carbon with immense possibilities.
2. At 36, professor Novoselvo, has been the youngest physicist since 1973 to win a nobel.
Which of the above statement is/are in correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Who haswon the first prize at the 8th International Sad sculpture championship in Berlin for his sculpture that showcased the effects of global warming.
(a) Sudarsan Pattnaik
(b) Sudarsan Mandal
(c) Ramkant Pattnaik
(d) Ramkant Mandal

30. Who has been chosen for the kalaignar m.karunanidhi classical tamilAward for 2009?
(a) M.R. Satyanarayana Rao
(b) Hari Uppal
(c) Asko Parpola
(d) P.K.Warrier

ANSWERS:

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs

1.Who has been awarded the prestigious Jnanpith Award for the year 2009?   
    A.  Akhlaq Mohammed Khan
    B.  Chandrashekhara Kambara
    C. Shrilal Shukla
    D.  O. N. V. Kurup
Answer: (C)

2. "Go/No-Go" policy defines "No-Go Area" as the area having        
I.  More than 10 per cent weighted forest cover (WFC).
II. More than 30 per cent gross forest cover (GFC).
A.  I
    B.  II
    C. I and II both
    D.  None of the above
Answer: (C)

3. Recently S & P has downgraded the ratings of which country?       
    A.  U.S
    B.  Italy
    C. Greece
    D.  Spain
Answer: (B)

4.A program that can identify traffic “black spots” has been named as       
    A.  GOTRAFFIC
    B.  SAFEPED
    C. SAFEMOV
    D.  EASEMOV
Answer: (B)

5.The Indian Army has joined hands with which bank to initiate ‘The Green Governance Programme’ that includes projects as rainwater harvesting, ground water rejuvenation, construction of check dams and water treatment/de-siltation of water bodies, New & Renewable Energy Initiatives etc?                               
    A.  Punjab National bank
    B.  SBI
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D.  ICICI
Answer: (D)

6.India has conducted “SLINEX II”, a naval exercise, with which country?   
    A.  Singapore
    B.  Sri Lanka
    C. South Korea
    D.  None of the above
Answer: (B)

7.Who has won the Archery world cup final?       
    A.  Alejandra Valencia
    B.  Deepika Kumari
    C. Ming Cheng
    D.  Dola Banerjee
Answer: (C)

8.Recently Text-To-Speech system has been launched in six Indian languages. Which among the following does not belong to the group?   
    A.  Marathi
    B.  Tamil
    C. Kannada
    D.  Bangla
Answer: (C)

9.Kendriya Vidhyalaya Sangathan has recently signed MoU to introduce which international language in its curriculum?           
    A.  Spanish
    B.  German
    C. French
    D.  Mandarin
Answer: (B)

10.Which among the following is correct about the SHAURYA MISSILE developed by DRDO?            
I.   It is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile.
II.  It has a range of 1000 km.
III. It can carry a payload of one-tonne of only conventional type.
    A.  Only I
    B.  Only II
    C. Only III
    D.  All
Answer: (A)

Saturday, October 1, 2011

CURRENT AFFAIRS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR APPSC GROUP-II

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) 95% of the countrys’s trade was through sea lanes. So to protect the sea lanes, India launched “INS Chennai” the third missile destroyer of project - 15 A.
(b) Chennai is the third and last Kolkata class warship, It is propelled by four gas turbines, and is designed to achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots.
(c) It is being built for the navy at the Garden rich Shipbuildersand Engineers Ltd. (Kolkata)
(d) It will be fitted with the indigenous Supersonic Brah Mos surface to surface missile system.

2. SIMBEX is an annual naval exercise this was formalised in 1994. between India and ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) Singapore

3. Consider the following Statements : -
1. Cryogenic engines use liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen at very low temperatures,
2. This technology is needed to put heavier, Communication Satellites in a geosynchronous transfer orbit with an apogee of 36,000 km and a perigee of 200 km.
Which of the above statement is in correct ?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The Liquid propulsion systems centre (LPSC) of the Indian space Research organisation (ISRO) is at ?
(a) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(c) Hydrabad (Andhra Prades)
(d) Ahmedabad (Gujrat)

5. Consider the following statements :
1. GSLV- D3 has failed to put in orbit an advanced communication satellite called GSTA-4.
2. The main high lights of GSAT-4 were its communication system in ka band. Its GAGAN Payload which would help in the landing accuracy of commercial aircraft at airports in India.
3. GAGAN Stands for GPS-aided Geo-Augmented navigation System. GPS is short for Global positioning system.
Which of the above statement is/are wrong ?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 3 Only
(d) Non of the above

6. Consider the following statements :
1. Cobalt - 60 was leaked when a worker cut open a pece of metal in a Delhi market this cobalt-60 is used for medical purposes, industrial radiography for nondestructive testing and in the food processing industry for irradiation process.
2. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is meant to maintain a “Cradle to grave” System to keep track of such equipment, including through on-site inspection.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above.

7. In a break through the scientist have isolated an exotic radioactive gas which they claim would
make it easier to detect under ground nuclear tests from air samples. the name of this radioactive gas is ?
(a) Xenon - 133.
(b) Xenon - 135
(c) Nion - x - 133.
(d) Nion - x - 135.

8. The Garden Reach shipbuilder and Engineers limited has built the country’s first Anti submarine warfare
corvette (ASWC). The name of this corvette is ?
(a) Andaman sea
(b) Ganga Sagar
(c) Kamorta
(d) Kachu baria

9. ‘MALABAR’ is a naval exercise between India and ?
(a) Singapore
(b) U.S.A
(c) China
(d) Britain

10. Consider the following Statements : -
1. Brah Mos armed with su- 30MKI would be a game changer in the India ocean because it has a range of 290 Km and Can also travel at a top speed of mach 2.8 barely 3-4 metres above the sea Surface, the missile cannot be intercepted by any Known weapon system in the world.
2. Brah Mos Acrospace, a joint venture between India and Russia has started designing a hypersonic Verson
of the Brahmos missile Brahmos - II
Which of the above statement is / are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. The Defence ministry announced plans to make the Defence Research and Development organisation
(DRDO) more accountable and leaner on the basis of the recommendations made by ?
(a) V.K. Saraswat
(b) Mr. Prabhat kumar
(c) P. Rama Rao
(d) P. Suryakant

12. The union Government has given the approval for the setting up of an autonomous defence university that
is expected to provide inputs to strategic policy making. This university will come up in ?
(a) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(b) Gaziabad (Uttar pradesh)
(c) New Delhi
(d) Lucknow (Uttar pradesh)

13. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has set up a Committee to study the Capability
of the national Aerospace Laboratory (NAL) to build Civil aircraft. The panel is headed by ?
(a) V.K. Saraswat
(b) K. Kasturirangan
(c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) S. Ramakrishnan.

14. Consider the following Statements :
1. Agni - II is a Surface - to - surface intermediate range missile that can carry nuclear weapons and has a range of more than 2000 km.
2. The missile re-entry vehicle is made with C a r b o n - Carbon Composits. to withstood very high temperatures of up to 3,000 degree Celsius.
which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Recently which Country has Successfuly launched a rocket to probe the planet venus ?
(a) China
(b) U.S.A
(c) European Space Agency
(d) Japan

16. The Garuda Series is a joint Air force exericise which started in 2003. In 2010, the singa pore Air force
was a part of this exercise. The Garuda exercise is conducted between india and ?
(a) U.S.A
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) Japan

17. Consider the following statements :
1. Medium range surface - to- surface prithni-II ballistic missile is a single stage, liquid propelled missile, that is capable of striking targets at a maximum range of 350km.
2. The Prithvi is the first of the missiles developed under the country’s Integrated Guided missile development
programme. It has now two variants - Air force version (Prithvi-II) and Naval (Dhanush) both having a range of 350 km.
Which of the above statement is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. C - 130 J Super Hercules is the World’s most advanced airlifter. Indian Air Force has purchased six of these airlifter from ?
(a) U.S.A
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Israel

19. Vajra prahar is a bilateral military exercise between India and ?
(a) Banladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A

20. Shatrujeet and Yudh Abhyas are the two bilateral military exericise between India and ?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) U.S.A
(d) Israel

21. Hand in Hand is a bilateral military war game between India and ?
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) U.S.A

22. Consider the following statements :
1. INSAT - 4 B satellite of the ISRO have developed a glitch power supply from one of its two solar panels has been cut off, affecting telecast by several channels.
2. INSAT- 4 B, Built by the ISRO Satellite Centre in Bangalore, was put in orbit in March 2007 by an Ariane launch Vehicle from kourou in Franch Guyana.
Which of the above statement is/are in correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Consider the following statements :
1. ISRO’s Polar Satellite launch Vehicle (PSLV - C13) has successfully put five satellite in the orbit.
2. This was the 16th Consecutive Successful fight of PSLV.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

24. The DRDO is building a new test range for its aeronautics missions for flight-testing sophisticated
unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) air - to ground weapons, huge parachutes, light combat Aircraft Tejas, aerostates and also for testing electronic warfare systemThis new test range is in which state?
(a) Solapur (Mharashtra)
(b) Vishaka patnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Chitradurgo (Karnataka)
(d) Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu)

25. The 600 MW Loharing Pala power Project, Constructed by NTPC is in news recently. It is on the river of ?
(a) Bhagirathi
(b) Satluj
(c) Chenab
(d) Indus

26. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s Second moon mission, chandrayaan - II will carry Seven indigenous payloads.
2. The Rs. 425 Crore mission is Scheduled to be launched in 2013.
3. Chandryaan - 2, with a lift- off weight of 2, 650 kg will be launched by GSLV from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
4. ISRO’s physical Research Laboratory is in Ahmedabad.
Which of the above statement’s are correct.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 2 and 4
(d) All of the above

27. Consider the following Statements :
1. The Fast Breeder test Reactor (FBTR) is at the heart of the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) at kalpakkam, and it is a forerunner to the second stage of the country’s nuclear power programme.
2. Fast Reactors use “Fast” (high energy) neutrons to sustain the fission process, in contrast to water colled reactors that use thermal (low energy) neutrons. Fast reactors are commonly known as breeders because they breed more fuel than they consume.
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Nuclear programme
1. In the first stage, India is using natural uranium as fuel to pressurised Heavy water Reactors (PHWR).
2. In the Second Stage, plutonium reprocessed from the spent fuel of the PHWRs, depleted uranium and
thorium kept in the blanket form will be used as fuel to power a series of breeder reactors. Thorium used in the breeders gets converted into uranium- 233, a fissile material.
3. In the third stage, reactors will use thorium and uranium - 233 to generate electricity.
4. India’s Nuclear Fuel Complex is in Hydrabad.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3,
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above

29. “Indra” is a bilateral military exercise between India and ?
(a) Russia
(b) U.S.A
(c) France
(d) None of the above.

30. Which of the following statement is incorrrect ?
(a) Rustom I, a medium altitude and long- endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehichle (UAV).
(b) Lakshy (UAV) -A drone that is remotely piloted by a ground control station provides aerial subtargets for
live fire training.
(c) Nishant (UAV) is a Surveillance aircraft primarily tasked with intelligence gathering over enemy
territory.
(d) All the above UAV are developed by the Hydrabad -based Aeronautical Development Establishment
(ADE).

31. “Indradhanush” is a bilateral Air Exercise between India and ?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) France
(c) U.K
(d) Israel

32. Scorpian Submarins are built by the Mazagaaon Dock limited this is expected to be available to the Indian Navy in 2015. India got the scorpian Submarins from?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) U.K.
(d) Israel

33. What is Project 75-I ?
(a) It is a project for building indigenous AWACS.
(b) It is a project for developing Kaveri engine.
(c) It is a project for developing Submarines.
(d) It is a project for developing Arjun- Mark II Tank

34. “Connect 2 Decode” (C2D) Project is related with ?
(a) It is related with the biological and genetic information relating to the mycobacterim tuberculosis (M+b) genome.
(b) It is related with decoding of HYV virus.
(c) It is related with the decoding of Bt brinjal and its effect on human health.
(d) None of the above.

35. What is top kill operation ?
(a) It is a military operation launched by NATO force in the Af-pak region to kill the top talibani leaders.
(b) It is a military operation launched by the Israel force in the Gaza area to kill the top hamas leaders.
(c) It is the use of heavy drilling fluids that would be injected into the well to stem the flow of oil and gas in the gulf of mexico.
(d) It is a military operation launched by the Indian force to kill the top naxal leaders.

36. Consider the following Statements :
1. Rare earth elements are a select group of 17 elements that are crucial to many of the world’s most advanced technologies, including missiles, mp3, mobile phones.
2. China is estimated to account for more than 95% of the global supply of rare earth elements.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

37. Consider the following statements :
1. Calcium carbide is generally used to ripen fruits.
2. Clalcium Carbide, Popularly Known as masala, It has carcinogenic Properties and is used in gas welding for steel goods.
3. Other way to ripen fruits is include dipping fruits in a solution of ethephon or exposing fruits to ethylene gas.
Which of the above statements is / are correct ?
(a) 1 an d 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

38. India has joined the Thirty Metre Telescope (TMT) project, the next generation astronomical observatory
that will be located in ?
(a) Hawaii (U.S.A)
(b) Tegucigalpa (Honduras)
(c) Managua ( Nicaragua)
(d) Havana (Cuba)

39. Consider the following statements regarding Thirty Meters Telescope (TMT)
1. The proposal to join the TMT Project was initiated by three Indian institutes engaged in astronomy . The IUCAA, The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)
Bangalore, and the Aryabhata Research Institute of observational Sciences (ARIES) Nanital.
2. TMT is scheduled to begain operations in 2018. Which of the above statement is / are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. In which country the archeologists have uncovered an ancient clay fragment dating back some 3,400 years, the oldest ever sample of writing found ?
(a) Jerusalem (Israel)
(b) madurai (India)
(c) Jakarta (Indonesia)
(d) Athens (Greece)

41. Celebrating 15 years of mobility in India, which company has announced an initiative called project “ujwal”, It is to provide 100% house hold mobility in five villages in Raebareli.
(a) Motorola
(b) Nokia
(c) Reliance
(d) Tata

42. Consider the following statements :
1. The department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is get
permission to locate the India- based neutrino observatory (INO) at singara in Nilgiri district in Tamil Nadu.
2. The INO is a major underground experimental facility to study the elusive and nearly mass- less fundamental particles of nature called neutrinos.
Which of the above statement is /are in correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Nither 1 nor 2.

43. Consider the following statements regarding Nagoya protocol ?
1. It is a new international treaty to ensure that the benefit of natural resources and their commercial derivatives were shared with local communities.
2. The protocol was Signed in the Japanese city of Nagoya, hence it is called Nagoya protocol.
3. United states one of the largest users of natural resources is not signed the protocol.
4. The next U.N. Summit on biodiversity is to be held in New Delhi in 2012.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

44. The first Indian Scientific Expedition to the south pole was launched recently the name of the India station on the antarctic is ?
(a) Maitri
(b) Sarada
(c) Sptami
(d) Tawangi

45. Consider the following statements :
1. “Synchrotron” - a high energy electron - accelerator typically hundreds of metres in diameter, where electrons move at a high speeds close to the speed of light through a circular tunnel generating bright beams of electromagatic radiation.
2. Indian Institute of science is going to install the “Synchrotron” in its campus.
Which of the above statement is/are in correct .
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Match the following
List I (wild life Sanctuary) List II (States)
A. Majthal wild life sanctuary 1.Andhra pradesh
B. Chambal river sanctuary 2. Himachal pradesh
C. Kolleru lake Sanctuary 3. Rajas than
D. Narayan sagar sanctuary 4. Gujrat
     A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3

47. Which India’s national park has the highest density of tigers in the world ? previously this status was held by Corbett Tiger reserve.
(a) Kaziranga
(b) Manas
(c) Sundarban
(d) Pench

48. Olive ridley turtle lay their eggs, generally at the nesting site in ?
(a) Goa Coast
(b) Orissa Coast
(c) Bengal Coast
(d) Tamil Nadu Coast

49. Consider the following statemens :
1. India has released its first green house gas emissions inventory Since 1994 - Showing a 30% fall in the emissions intensity of the GDP from that date till 2007.
2. The 30% drop in the emissions per unit of GDP boded well for India’s voluntary target of reducing emissions intensity further by 20 to 25 % by 2025
3. In per Capita terms, emissions rose from 1.4 tonnes to 1.7 tonnes without taking forestary compansations into account.
Which of the above statements is/are Correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

50. Whatis REDD + ?
(a) It is the U.N.’s programme for Reducing Emission from Deforestation and forest degradation.
(b) It is the U.N’s programme for Research in Ecology in Developing world.
(c) It is a programme launched by the Red cross Society for making awarness of blood donation.
(d) It is a programme launched by India for Reducing Emission in Defence sector.

51. Consider the following statements :
1. Jarawas people are lived in Andaman Island.
2. Jarawas people lived with out contact with outsiders for probably about 55,000 years until 1998.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Consider the following statements :
1. The nilgiri, Nanda Devi, Sundar bans, Gulf of mannar, Pachmarhi, Nokrek and simlipal reserves have been included in a world network of biosphere reserves.
2. Biosphere reserves are sites recognised under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme, which Innovate and demonstrate approaches to conservation and sustainable development.
3. In a biosphere reserve, a holistic approach is adoted for conservation of the core, buffer and transition areas to ensure sustainable development. Human occupants of the buffer and transition areas form an integral part of the reserve.
4. Great nicobar, manas and kanjan janga might be declared biosphere reserve in India.
Which of the above Statements are correct.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) All of the above.

53. Consider the following statements regarding Vulture conservation :
1. Over the past decade nearly 99% of the vultures in India have been brought to the point of extinction with a veterinary drug, Diclofenac, which leads to kidney failure.
2. The valture conservation Breeding centre (VCBC) is in Pinjore (Haryana), Rajabhatkhawa (West Bengal) and in Assam.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. Consider the following statements : -
1. The Ministry of Environment and Forests and the defence Research and Development organisation have
launched a major national initiative for Seabuckthorn cultivation in the high- altitude, cold desert ecosystems under the Leh declaration.
2. Sea buck thorn, also called the “wounder plant” and “Ladakh gold” has multi- purpose medicinal
and nutritional properties, and also helps in soil conservation and nitrogen fixation.
3. Long considered a hurble shrub of the himalayas, every part of the plant - fruit, leaf, twig, root and thorn- has been traditionally used for medicine, nutritional supplements, fuel and fencing.
4. The initiative is to be included in the submission on cold desert Ecosystems to be established under the green India mission- which is a part of the National Action plan on climate change.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of the above

55. The 2000 - MW lower subansiri Hydro- Electric project of the national Hydroelectric power coporation (WHPC) is at ?
(a) Assam
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) West Sengal
(d) Bhutan.

56. Math the following :
List I (Grass land) List II (State)
A. Kuno - palpur wild life sanctuaries. 1. Assam
B. Nauradehi wild life sanctuaries. 2. Rajasthan.
C. Shahgarh Landscape 3. Madhy pradesh
D. Manas 4. Madhy pradesh
     A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 1 2 4

57. Consider the following statements :
1. Cheetah - the only large wild mammalian species that India has lost.
2. Cheetah will be reintroduced from middle East, where North African Cheetahs are bread.
Which of the above statement is/ are incorrect ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Consider the following statements : -
1. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) based in New Delhi has developed “Oilzapper” technology for containing the oil leak that happened from MSC chitra.
2. The process of using oilzapper technology is called bioremediation. In this process a combination of microbes or bacteria is used to clean the oil Spill. The microbes feed on oil and degrade it completely. These
microbes die with in few hour and form food for other marine animal.
3. Another method is chemical method where emulsifyers are Sprayed over the slick. It does not clean up the oil, but makes it invisible,
4. Other method is creating makeshift bioremediation tanks near the affected area. In this method the contaninated Sand has to be physically scooped out and shifted to the tanks.

Answers
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (c)
2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (d)
3. (d) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c)
4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (d)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (b)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c)
7. (a) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (c)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (d)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (d)
10. (c) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (a) 50. (a)