INDIAN POLITY MCQS

1. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Answer : (D)

2. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Answer : (D)

3. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Answer : (B)

4. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Answer : (D)

5. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Answer : (A)

6. The rule of lapse meAnswer—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Answer : (A)

7. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Answer : (A)

8. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Answer : (A)

9. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Answer : (B)

10. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer : (A)

11. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Answer : (C)

12. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Answer : (C)

13. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Answer : (B)

14. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Answer : (C)

15. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Answer : (A)

16. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Answer : (B)

17. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Answer : (A)

18. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Answer : (C)

19. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Answer : (A)

20. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Answer : (D)

21. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) TrAnswerfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Answer : (A)

22. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Answer : (A)

23. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Answer : (A)

24. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Answer : (C)

25. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Answer : (B)

26. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Answer : (C)

27. 'Mandamus' is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Answer : (A)

28. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Answer : (B)

29. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Answer : (D)

30. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term 'Cabinet' mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Answer : (C)

31. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Answer : (D)

32. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Answer : (D)

33. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Answer : (D)

34. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Answer : (C)

35. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Answer : (C)

36. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer : (C)

37. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Answer : (C)

38. The term 'Federation' has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Answer : (D)

39. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Answer : (C)

40. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Answer : (D)

41. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Answer : (C)

42. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Answer : (A)

43. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Answer : (B)

44. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Answer : (D)

45. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Answer : (B)

46. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) People of their constituency
Answer : (D)

47. Who among the following is known as 'the father of local selfgovernment' in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Answer : (C)

48. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Answer : (C)

49. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Answer : (B)

50. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Answer : (C)

51. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state's requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state's tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Answer : (D)

52. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Answer : (C)

53. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Answer : (D)

54. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Answer : (C)

MPPSC GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The 'Kalabaisakhis' originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the 'Sunderbans' ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The 'Regur' soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as 'Black Gold' ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the 'Cottonopolis' of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery ('gur')
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of 'Green House Effect' ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The 'Bad land' landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean's greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a 'Zaid' crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
 
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 
110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

RAS GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

1. Minamata disease is caused by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Lead
(D) Zinc

2. Government of Rajasthan has constituted one organisation to advise the government on reforms in economic matters. This organisation is named as—
(A) Economic Policy and Reforms Council
(B) Reform Committee on Economic Policy
(C) Council for Economic Reforms
(D) Economic Advisory Committee

3. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Union Government to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance ?
(A) Article 355
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 360

4. Which one of the following groups of organisms has significance in diagnosing the death by drowing
(A) Lichens
(B) Protozoa
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Diatoms

5. When there is a very heavy rainfall in the Pushkar Hills, where does floods occur ?
(A) Ajmer
(B) Sawai Madhopur
(C) Balotra
(D) Sojat

6. On a specific day and time, temperature was 48°C in Churu and 24°C in Shimla. Two metallic cups identical in all respects contained water at 95°C in Churu and 71°C in Shimla. Which one of these two cups reached room temperature first ?
(A) Cup in Churu
(B) Cup in Shimla
(C) Both cups reached room temperature at the same time
(D) Data are not enough to find out result

7. Who won the Booker's Prize, 2008 ?
(A) Arvind Adiga
(B) Aruna Roy
(C) Rajendra Singh
(D) Medha Patekar

8. The first woman 'Four-star General' in United States of America Military is—
(A) Haldun Woody
(B) Anna Maehays
(C) Mike Mullen
(D) Anne Dun Woody

9. Which one of the following acid is formed during the change of milk into curd ?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Lactic acid

10. What is the height of Guru Shikhar Peak in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1722 metres
(B) 1727 metres
(C) 1750 metres
(D) 1780 metres

12. 'Archaeopteryx' is a connecting link between which of the following classes of animal ?
(A) Amphibia and Aves
(B) Reptilia and Aves
(C) Reptilia and Mammalia
(D) Aves and Mammalia

13. Tick mark correct statement—
(A) CIMMCO wagon factory restarted in Bharatpur after eight years
(B) CIMMCO factory is started at Bhiwadi for manufacturing coaches
(C) CIMMCO factory is manufacturing chassis of trucks and buses at Alwar
(D) CIMMCO company is engaged in exports of coaches to Asian countries

14. Where is Port Pradeep located ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa

15. Mangla-Bhagyam, Shakti and Aishwarya—
(A) Are three schemes for upliftment of scheduled castes' girls
(B) Are oil fields discovered in Barmer-Sanchore basin
(C) Are three universities established in Private sector
(D) Produce natural gas from Jaisalmer basin to supply Ramgah power plant

16. Among the crafts that have been shortlisted by National Institute of Design for Geographical Indicator Status is—
(A) Jaipur for blue pottery and Udaipur for clay work
(B) Zari work of Ajmer and block printing of Sanganer
(C) Embroidary of Barmer and wollens of Jaisalmer
(D) Paintings of Kishangadh and Namdas of Tonk

17. Pearl is mainly constituted of—
(A) Calcium oxalate
(B) Calcium sulphate
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Calcium oxide

18. Where is the famous 'Finger Lake Region' located ?
(A) Australia
(B) Austria
(C) United States of America (U.S.A.)
(D) Britain

19. In which year did a major flood occur in Kawas in Barmer ?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008

20. Which sect has the headquarters located at Shahpura (Bhilwara) ?
(A) Dadu sect
(B) Vallabh sect
(C) Nimbark sect
(D) Ramsnehi sect

21. Ashtadhyayi was written by—
(A) Varahmihira
(B) Kalidas
(C) Panini
(D) Balram

22. The whole dispute between Subhash Bose and right wing, after the Tripuri session of Congress centred round to the question of—
(A) Formation of Congress working committee
(B) Policy towards princely states
(C) Attitude towards central government
(D) Double membership of Congress Socialist Party members

23. Adamya Chetna Trust, Havells India Limited, Hindustan Zinc Limited and DSCL Kota (Shree Ram Group) are some Trust/Corporates related to—
(A) Production of handicrafts and industrial goods
(B) Mid-Day Meal Programme
(C) Infrastructure development in Rajasthan
(D) Special Economic Zone in Rajasthan

24. One Rajasthan-born industrialist contributed a sum of Rs. 22,000 in 1920s to C.V. Raman's path breaking research which won him the Nobel Prize—
(A) Purshotam Das Bajaj
(B) Jamshedjee Tata
(C) Magni Ram Bangur
(D) Ghanshyam Das Birla

25. Who is the author 'ANDHAYUG' ?
(A) Ram Dhari Singh Dinkar
(B) Mahaveer Prasad Diwedi
(C) Dharam Veer Bharti
(D) Mohan Rakesh

26. United Nations General Assembly President is—
(A) John Major
(B) Miguel d'Escoto
(C) Jacquesrene Chirac
(D) Jiang Zemin

27. In which continent are the Atlas Mountains situated ?
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Europe

28. Per Capita Income at current prices in Rajasthan during 2007-08 is about—
(A) 20,000 Rs.
(B) 22,000 Rs.
(C) 24,000 Rs.
(D) 18,000 Rs.

29. Nawalgadh (Sikar) in Rajasthan was in news because of—
(A) Bumper crop of kharif season particularly the production of bajra
(B) The government of Rajasthan has taken responsibility to provide the land to cement manufacturers
(C) Ginder Utsav is started during the month of Shrawan to attract tourists
(D) A private university is sanctioned by government for this area

30. Which one of the following changes occur when salt is added in the water ?
(A) Boiling point is increased and freezing point is decreased
(B) Boiling point is decreased and freezing point is increased
(C) Both boiling point and freezing point are decreased
(D) Both boiling point and freezing point are increased

31. When a person enters in a dark room from strong light area, he is not able to see clearly for some
time. Later he gradually begins to see things. This is because—
(A) Changes in the size of pupil
(B) Changes in the diameter and focal length of lens
(C) Bleaching and reformation of Rhodopsins
(D) Eyes become familiar with darkness in course of time

32. Exclude which is not correct—
(A) RUDA is functioning for creation of more avenues of employment in the rural nonfarm sector
(B) Bureau of Investment Promotion is an agency for promotion of Small Scale Industry projects
(C) RIICO is an apex organization engaged in postering growth of industrialisation in the state
(D) Rajasthan Small Industries Corporation is functioning to assist Small Scale Industry and handicrafts

33. The art style which combines Indian and Greek feature is called—
(A) Sikhar
(B) Verra
(C) Gandhar
(D) Nagar

34. In which city of India, first D.N.A. Bank of Asia is established recently ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kota
(C) Chennai
(D) Lucknow

35. Raika's in Rajasthan are—
(A) Traditionals horse breeders
(B) Traditional camel breeders
(C) Used to sell goods from village to village
(D) Salt-traders

36. The first session of Rajputana-Madhyabharat Sabha was held in 1918 at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Ajmer
(C) Indore
(D) Udaipur

37. Who is the author of the book named 'The Audacity of Hope' ?
(A) Nayan Tara Sehgal
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Barack Obama

38. RIDCOR stands for—
(A) Road Infrastructure Development Company of Rajasthan
(B) Rail Information Download Corporation of Rajasthan
(C) Rajasthan Indoor Decoration Corporation of Railways
(D) Rail Infrastructure Development Corporation of Rajasthan

39. Inscription which throw light on the writings of Maharana Kumbha is—
(A) Kumbhalgarh inscription (1460 A.D.)
(B) Kirtistambha Prashasti (1460 A.D.)
(C) Jagannath Rai inscription (1652 A.D.)
(D) Raj Prashasti (1676 A.D.)

40. Jnan Pith award has been given to (06th November 2008)—
(A) Vinit Narayan
(B) Rehman Rahi
(C) Kamleshwar
(D) Gyan Chaturvedi

41. For which desirable character the transgenic crop 'Golden Rice' is produced ?
(A) Vitamin 'A'
(B) Essential Amino Acids
(C) Insulin
(D) Characteristic Starch

42. The world's youngest King belongs to which country ?
(A) Saudi Arab
(B) Japan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Thailand

43. Mammoth is the ancestor of—
(A) Dog
(B) Horse
(C) Camel
(D) Elephant

44. Which district in Rajasthan grows, in largest quantity, psyllium husk (planto ovata) or 'Isabgol' ?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Jalore
(C) Sirohi
(D) Bundi

45. Who launched the 'Lasodia Movement' for social reforms amongst the Bhils of Mewar, Bagar and nearby regions ?
(A) Mavji
(B) Govind Giri
(C) Surmal Das
(D) Moti Lal Tejawat

46. Chairman of Indian Space and Research Organization is—
(A) Krishna Swamy Kasturirangan
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) G. Madhavan Nair
(D) K.M. Bhandari

47. Most stable Ecosystem is
(A) Forest
(B) Grassland
(C) Desert
(D) Marine

48. Which tree is called the 'Flame of the Forest in Rajasthan' ?
(A) Khejri
(B) Neem
(C) Palas
(D) Paras Peepul

49. Which city is known as 'Suncity' in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Udaipur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer

50. Which was common among Brahma Samaj, and Ram Krishna Mission Arya Samaj ?
(A) None of these three had a political mission, but they helped to develop a spirit of patriotism
(B) All the three originated from Bengal
(C) Founder of all the three were educated in England
(D) Founder of all the three took active part in politics

51. Tick mark which is incorrect about NREGA—
(A) This Act spells out the type of works which are permitted
(B) Like in other government programmes transparency and accountability is also not possible in this programme
(C) This Act specifies the individual works but only for the scheduled castes and tribes below the poverty line
(D) The guarantee of •274 year employment during a year is possibly the most important feature of this Act.

52. Mahajanpad situated on the bank of river Godavari was—
(A) Avanti
(B) Vatsa
(C) Assaka
(D) Kamboja

53. Which mineral is found in Nathra-ki-Pal area of Rajasthan ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Copper
(C) Lead and Zinc
(D) Manganese

54. One of the following sites from where the famous Bull-seal of Indus Valley Civilization was found—
(A) Harappa
(B) Chanhudaro
(C) Lothal
(D) Mohenjodaro

55. Tick mark which is incorrect about inflation—
(A) Inflation indicates the rise in the price of a basket of commodities on a point-to-point basis
(B) The inflation rate in India is calculated on the basis of the wholesale price index
(C) For some commodities retail prices are also considered for measurement of inflation
(D) Inflation rate going down does not mean prices are declining

56. Which district has the least population density in Rajasthan ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Barmer
(D) Jaisalmer

57. Bio-magnification means—
(A) Fast spreading of cancer cells in the body
(B) Increasing the amount of pesticides in the organisms of successive trophic level
(C) To see the microscopic parts of the body by microscope
(D) Sudden increase in the number of the individuals of a species in a specific area

58. Chandrayaan-I was launched from—
(A) Orissa
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh

59. By which process, Alum cleans the muddy water ?
(A) Absorption
(B) Adsorption
(C) Coagulation
(D) Dialysis

60. Match List-I (Development Programme) with List-II (Coverage Area) and give the correct answer on the basis of codes given below the list—
List-I
(a) Mewat Area Development Programme
(b) Border Area Development Programme
(c) Dang Area Development Programme
(d) Magra Area Development Programme
List-II
1. Eight blocks of Alwar and three blocks of Bharatpur
2. Thirteen blocks of four Districts
3. 357 Gram Panchayats of 21 Panchayat Samitis
4. 14 blocks covering Ajmer, Bhilwara, Chittorgarh, Pali and Rajsamand districts
5. Saharia tribal families residing in Shahbad and Kishangarh blocks
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 5 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 5 3
(D) 1 4 2 3

61. Handloom Mark shows the standard of—
(A) Handloom clothes
(B) Craft works
(C) Hand embroidery
(D) Hand block printing

62. Which country has signed an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation with India in September 2008 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Japan
(C) Brazil
(D) France

63. Who was appointed as President of South Africa after resignation of Thabo Mbeki ?
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Kglema Motlanthe
(C) Taro Aso
(D) Morgan Tsvangirai

64. In which year was the Desert development programme started in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1960-61
(B) 1977-78
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1994-95

65. Which of the following pair is matching ?
(A) Badla (Water-bottle) — Jaipur
(B) Masuria Sari — Kota
(C) Namda — Jodhpur
(D) Marble Carving — Tonk

66. Under whose Command Marwari forces were sent to Khanwa to support Sanga against Babur ?
(A) Rao Ganga
(B) Maldeo
(C) Biram Deo
(D) Suja

67. The 'Hot Spot' of Biodiversity in India are—
(A) Western Himalayas and Eastern Ghat
(B) Western Himalayas and Sunderban
(C) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghat
(D) Eastern Himalayas and Silent Valley

68. Who has been chosen for the Bharat-Ratna ?
(A) Devanand
(B) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
(C) Kanshi Ram
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

69. What is the product found in large quantities in Churu-Bikaner-Sri Ganganagar belt, which is (i) a source of environmental pollution, (ii) used for raising soil fertility, and (iii) after value addition, is used in health and building sector ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Lignite
(C) Fullers Earth
(D) Gypsum

70. In Rajasthan each state had a Mahakma Baqoit which used to—
(A) Charge the revenue arrears in good harvest years
(B) Make the payments of King's dues
(C) Collect the dues from government servants
(D) Collect the loans for the Kings

71. Generally where coral reefs are found ?
(A) In temperate climate above 18°C
(B) Between tropics of cancer and tropics of capricorn coastal areas
(C) On both east and west coasts of continents and islands only
(D) On colder sea coasts

72. Which one of the followings is used in the synthesis of polythene ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Propane
(D) Butane

73. A bird's eye view of macro economic developments under various programmes launched by the state government in Rajasthan is available in—
(A) Economic Review
(B) Reserve Bank of India Bulletin
(C) Economic and Political Weekly
(D) Sujas

74. How many are there 'Million Plus Population' cities in India (Census 2001) ?
(A) 39
(B) 29
(C) 49
(D) 59

75. National Water Development Agency was established in the year—
(A) 1969
(B) 1970
(C) 1980
(D) 1990

76. Author of 'Nyaya Darshan' was—
(A) Gautam
(B) Kanad
(C) Kapil
(D) Badrayan

77. KANDHMAL is in which State ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat

78. Indian PM Manmohan Singh is an elected member of Rajya Sabha from which State ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Assam
(D) Gujarat

79. In which province Muslim League formed their government after 1946 elections ?
(A) Bengal
(B) North-West Frontier
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

80. Which city can be called 'the Manchester' of Rajasthan ?
(A) Kota
(B) Pali
(C) Beawar
(D) Bhilwara

81. Pheromones are found in—
(A) Insects
(B) Snakes
(C) Birds
(D) Bats

82. Which State is not a part of 'seven sisters' of North-Eastern States ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) West Bengal
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Tripura

83. The main function of colonization in Rajasthan is to—
(A) Provide residential plots
(B) Acquire land by the government
(C) Provide irrigation facilities
(D) Allot land

84. Who is the Governor of West Bengal ?
(A) Gopal Gandhi
(B) Shiv Charan Mathur
(C) Surjeet Singh Barnala
(D) Nawal Kishore Sharma

85. Which Act introduced 'Dyarchy' at the centre ?
(A) The Act of 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

86. The symbol of World Wild-life Fund is—
(A) Polar Bear
(B) White Bear
(C) Red Panda
(D) Cheeta

87. The Electoral College for the United States Presidential Election is constituted by the—
(A) Members of United States Congress
(B) Members of House of Representatives
(C) Members of Senate
(D) None of them

88. In what direction Monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan increases ?
(A) Southwest-Northeast
(B) Southeast-Northwest
(C) Northwest-Southeast
(D) South-North

89. Dhawadia were the persons—
(A) Engaged in looting of caravans and kafilas
(B) Who used to collect the taxes for kings
(C) Who used to stock the foodgrains
(D) Who used to participate in the race

90. By which process the sea water can be converted into pure water ?
(A) Deliquescence
(B) Efflorescence
(C) Electric separation
(D) Reverse osmosis

91. Place where the 'Jal Durg' (fort erected in water) is located—
(A) Ajmer
(B) Amber
(C) Siwana
(D) Gagron

92. In which of the following crop Azolla-Anabaena biofertilizer is used ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Mustard
(D) Cotton

94. Which group of districts has highest forest area ?
(A) Baran - Udaipur - Chittaurgarh
(B) Bharatpur - Jhalawar - Kota
(C) Karauli - Sirohi - Dungarpur
(D) Banswara - Dholpur – Raj Samand

95. Which one of the following statements in FALSE ?
(A) The special rubber tyres of air craft are made slightly conducting
(B) The blue waves scattered more than violet waves of light so that the sky appears blue not violet
(C) A comb run through one's wet hair does not attract small bits of paper
(D) Vehicles carrying inflammable material usually have metallic ropes touching the ground

97. Who represented Congress in Second Round Table Conference ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Moti Lal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

99. The Maitri Express train is introduced between the stations—
(A) Kolkata and Dhaka
(B) Amritsar and Lahore
(C) Delhi and Srinagar
(D) Lucknow and Kathmandu

100. Buxa Tiger Project is located in which state of India ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) West Bengal

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (A)
74. (*) In India as per population Census-2001, the number of 'Million Plus Population' cities is 35. Thus, all the four alternatives given in the question are incorrect.
75. (*) National Water Development Agency was set in July 1982 as Autonomous Society.
76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C) 81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (B)
96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (A) 100. (D)

Employment Schemes of India

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

 

• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) has been created by merging two schemes, Prime Minister's Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) and Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP), which were in operation till 31.03.2008.
• It is a credit linked subsidy programme being implemented by Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
• It aims at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of micro enterprises by organizing traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
• The scheme will be implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level and by KVIC directorates, Khadi and Village Industries Board and Districts Industries Centres at the state level.
• The Government subsidy under the scheme will be distributed to the beneficiaries/entrepreuners through identified banks by KVIC.
• Individuals above 18 years of age, Self Help groups, Institutions registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860, Production Co-oerative Societies and Charitable Trusts are eligible for subsidy to set up projects under PMEGP.

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY)

 

Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) started on 01.04.1999 is a major on going programme for self employment for the rural poor. The programme was developed after reviewing and restructuring the erstwhile Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and allied programmes namely

• Training Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
• Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)
• Supply of Toolkits in Rural Areas (SITRA)
• Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY)
• Millions Wells Scheme.

The other programmes are no more in operation with the launching of SGSY. The basic objective of the SGSY is to bring the assisted poor families above the poverty line by providing them income-generating assets through a mix of bank credit and governmental subsidy. The SGSY is being implemented by the District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) with the active involvement of Panchayati Raj Institutions, the Banks, the Line Departments and the Non-Government Organisations. The programme is financed on 75 : 25 cost sharing basis between the Centre and the States. The SGSY aims to cover all aspects of rural employment, the chiefly the following

• Social mobilisation i.e. organisation of the poor into Self Help Groups (SHGs)
• Activity Cluster, Planning and Selection i.e identifying and selecting a key activity in terms of its economic viability in an area.
• Financial Assistance in the form of credit and subsidy in which credit is a major component.
• Training of Swarozgaris through well-designed training courses.
• Infrastructure Development
• Marketing and Technology Support
  
   
  Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
   
  The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, notified in 200 districts in the first phase on Feb 2, 2006 was renamed Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) on 02 Oct 2009. 130 districts were notified in 2007 and with the notification of the remaining districts on 01 April 2008, the entire country has been covered. Exception is given to district with a hundred percent urban population. The Act seeks to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year.
  Salient Features:
• Adult members of a rural household willing to do unskilled manual work are eligible to seek employment under the act.
• Employment is to be given within 15 days of application for work, otherwise daily unemployment allowance has to paid by the respective State.
• Wages are to be paid according to Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State unless otherwise notified by the centre
• Equal wages are to be paid to both men and women.
• At least one-third beneficiaries are to be women.
• No conractors and machinery is allowed.

The MGNERGA is a paradigm shift from previous wage employment programmes, the significant aspects which are given below:

• It provides a statutory guarantee of wage employment.
• It provides a rights-based framework for wage employment.
• The Act provides incentive to the State Govt for providing employment as 90% of the cost is borne by the Centre and at the same time discentive in the form of Unemployment Allowance falls on the State Govt which fails to provide employment within the stipulated time of 15 days of applying for work.

Transparency safeguards are provided in the form of

• Job cards in the custody of workers which monitor entitlements.
• Issue of dated receipts on application for work
• Citizen Information Boards at worksites.
• Vigilance Monitoring Committees.
   

  Hunar se Rozgaar Scheme

   

  Hunar Se Rozgaar Tak is an employment scheme launched by the Tourism Ministry, Govt. of India in 2009 for youth in the 18 - 25 years age group and who are at least 8th pass. These are training programmes to create employable skills in hospitality sector under the Capacity Building Scheme of Ministry of Tourism. Initially the programme was to be conducted by 25 Institutes of Hotel Management and Food Craft Institutes sponsored by the Ministry of Tourism. Subsequently the programme has been allowed to be conducted by certain starred hotels. The programmes is intended to offer short but quality training courses covering i) Food & Beverage Service and ii) Food Production. The programme will target the youth of weaker sections of societies who are interested in joining the hospitality industry and are in need to acquire skills facilitating employment.
  
  

  Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana

   

  The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) originally launched in Dec 1997 is a unified Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched a fresh in lieu of the erstwhile Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes viz., Nehru Rojgar Yojana (NRY), Prime Minister's Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme (PMIUPEP) and Urban Basic Services for the Poor (UBSP).
  The SJSRY has been comprehensively revamped with effect from 01.04.2009. The SJSRY has three key objectives namely:
  

  1. Addressing urban poverty alleviation through gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor.
  2. Supporting skill development and training to enable the urban poor have access to employment opportunities provided by the market or undertake self-employment
  3. Empowering the community to tackle the issues of urban poverty through suitable selfmanaged community structures and capacity building programmes.

  The scheme is proposed to be implemented through Urban Local Bodies and community structures.
  The revamped SJSRY has five major components, namely
  

  1. Urban Self Employment Programme (USEP)
  2. Urban Women Self-help Programme (UWSP)
  3. Skill Training for Employment Promotion amongst Urban Poor (STEP-UP)
  4. Urban Wage Employment Programme (UWEP)
  5. Urban Community Development Network (UCDN)

  
  

  SWALAMBAN

   

  Swalamban Scheme has been launched on 26.09.2010 to encourage the workers of unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement and to lower the cost of operations of the New Pension System (NPS) for such subscribers.
  It was announced in the Union Budget 2010-11. It is a co-contributory pension scheme in which the Government of India (GOI) will contribute a sum of Rs. 1,000 to each eligible NPS subscriber who contributes a minimum of Rs. 1,000 and maximum Rs. 12,000 per annum under the Swavalamban Scheme.
  The GoI contribution has been announced for the current year and the next three years i.e. upto the year 2013-14. The target of the Government is to cover around 10 lakh subscribers each during the 4 years of the Scheme, totaling to around 40 lakh subscribers.
  Workers of unorganized sector from any part of the country can join this Scheme. Implementation of the scheme has been entrusted to the Interim Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
  
  SABLA SCHEME
  

   

  SABLA scheme is the name for Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls [RGSEAG].
  It merges the Nutrition Programme for Adolscent Girls (NPAG) and Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY).
  An amount of Rs. 1000 crore has been allocated in budget of 2010-11.
  The scheme focuses on improving the nutritional and health status and upgrading various skills like home skills, life skills and vocational skills of adolscent girls of age 11 t 18 years.
  It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to be implemented through the State Governments/UTs with 100% financial assistance from the Central Government for all inputs, except supplementary nutrition for which Government of India and States would share on 50: 50 basis.
  The scheme is proposed to be implemented using the platform of Integrated Child Development Services Scheme and delivered through Anganwadi centres.
  

  
  

  National Rural Livelihoods Mission

   

  National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), a new initiative under the Ministry of Rural Development to bring the poorest of the poor above the poverty line by ensuring viable livelihood opportunities to them was launched in Jun 2011 by the UPA Chairperson Sonia Gandhi.
  

  The core belief of NRLM

  The NRLM is based on the core belief that the poor have innate capabilities and a strong desire to come out of poverty. This intrinsic capability of the poor is unleashed only when they are organized into institutions which are truly owned by them, provided sufficient capacity building and handholding support.
  

  Background of NRLM

  The Integrated Rural Development Programme was launched in 1980 by the Government of India to help the people below poverty line. In 1999 the programme was transformed to Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY). This programme followed the strategy of generating self employment through organizing poor into Self Help Groups (SHGs). In the last 10 years about 250 lakh rural BPL households have been organized and brought under the SHG network. It may also be noted that 450 lakh households still need to be organized into SHGs and the existing SHGs covering 250 lakhs also need further strengthening and greater financial support. Considering the enormity of the task, the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India (GoI) set up a committee under the Chairmanship of Prof. R. Radhakrishna (Committee on Credit Related Issues under SGSY), which submitted its recommendations in the year 2009. The Ministry after widespread consultations accepted the major recommendation of the Radhakrishna Committee for restructuring the SGSY as National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM). The Ministry’ proposal was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 24.6.10.
  

  Purpose of the Mission

  The basic purpose of National Rural Livelihoods Mission is to put in place a dedicated and sensitive support structure from the national level to the sub-district level which will focus on the poor, build and sustain their organizations at different levels. This will provide the poor a platform for collective action based on self help and mutual cooperation and they become a strong demand system, build linkages with mainstream institutions, including banks, and Government departments to address the various dimensions of poverty.
  

  The Mission

  The Mission aims to ensure that at least one member from each identified rural poor household, preferably a woman, is brought under the Self Help Group (SHG) network in a time bound manner. NRLM would reach out, mobilize and support 7 Crore BPL households across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats, in 6 lakh villages across the country into their self-managed Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their federal institutions and livelihoods collectives. It would support them financially and institutionally in all their efforts to get them out of poverty. The poor would be helped to achieve increased access to their rights, entitlements and public services, diversified risk and better social indicators of empowerment.
  

  Coverage of Weaker Sections of Society

  NRLM has been mandated to ensure adequate coverage of vulnerable sections of the society such that 50% of the beneficiaries are SC/STs, 15% are minorities and 3% are persons with disability, while keeping in view the ultimate target of 100% coverage of BPL families. A unique feature of the new initiative is that it would be led by the poor themselves. NRLM would utilize the services of Community Resource Persons (CRPs) who are women who have themselves come out of poverty through being a part of the Self Help Group. They will spread the concept of NRLM from one village to another and from one district to another making NRLM a people’s movement.
  NRLM will focus on women as we believe that the best way of reaching out to the whole family is through the woman. There will be a special focus on vulnerable sections: scheduled tribes, scheduled castes, minorities, women headed families, etc. The second focus of NRLM would be rural youth of the country who are unemployed. They will be supported through placement linked skill development projects through which their skills will be upgraded through short term training courses in sectors which have high demand for services.
  
  

Pradeep Kumar, Defence Secretary, to be the New CVC

Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar was unanimously chosen the next Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), four months after the Supreme Court had quashed the appointment of P.J. Thomas to the post.

Although there is no official announcement made yet, sources said Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who retires as Defence Secretary on July 31, was chosen by consensus by a panel comprising Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, Home Minister P. Chidambaram and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Sushma Swaraj.

Mr. Pradeep Kumar, who will be 62 in September, is a Haryana cadre IAS officer of the 1972 batch. He was Secretary, Defence Production, before becoming the Defence Secretary. He will have a three year term as he will have to demit office on attaining age of 65 under the CVC Act.

Ms. Sushma Swaraj, who had opposed in writing the appointment of Thomas as CVC, had no objection to Mr. Kumar’s candidature.

The Supreme Court had on March 3 set aside the appointment of Thomas as Central Vigilance Commissioner and also laid down stringent guidelines for future appointments of CVC.

Since the high-powered committee did not consider the pending charge sheet against Thomas in the palmolein import scam, the apex court on September 3, 2010 had termed the recommendation for appointment of Thomas as CVC is “illegal”.

A list of probable candidates was prepared by the Department of Personnel and Training which placed it before the selection panel.

Those whose names figured in the initial list included Defence Secretary Pradeep Kumar, former Home Secretary G.K. Pillai, former Chemicals and Fertilisers Secretary Bijoy Chatterjee, former Secretary, Legislative Affairs V.K. Bhasin, former Urban Development Secretary M. Ramachandran and Personnel Secretary Alka Sirohi.

India achieves major breakthrough in solar thermal cooling system technology

The world’s highest efficiency solar thermal cooling system at the Solar Energy Centre in Gurgaon in Haryana.
The new 100 kw Solar Air-Conditioning System works at 30% higher efficiency than the current available systems and has several unique features. It is based on the new triple effect absorption cooling technology. The system has indigenously built medium temperature high efficiency parabolic troughs for collection of solar energy and effective solar thermal energy storage in the form of Phase Change Materials.

CECA between India-Malaysia comes into effect from 1 july 2011

The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA), which will come into effect on 1 July 2011, is India’s fourth bilateral Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, after Singapore, South Korea and Japan. The CECA envisages liberalisation of trade in goods, trade in services, investments and other areas of economic cooperation.

Trade between India and Malaysia has reached US$ 10 billion in 2010-11, an increase of 26% from the previous year. It is expected that the implementation of this agreement will boost bilateral trade to US$15 billion by 2015.

The trade in goods package under India-Malaysia CECA takes the tariff liberalization beyond the India-ASEAN FTA commitments, which were implemented by both countries on 1 January 2010. Under India-Malaysia CECA, the items on which India has obtained market access from Malaysia include basmati rice, mangoes, eggs, trucks, motorcycles and cotton garments, which are all items of considerable export interest to India. At the same time, adequate protection has been provided by the Indian side for sensitive sectors such as agriculture, fisheries, textiles, chemicals, auto, etc.

Under the services agreement of the CECA, India and Malaysia have provided commercially meaningful commitments in sectors and modes of interest to each other which should result in enhanced services trade. The CECA also facilitates the temporary movement of business people including contractual service suppliers, and independent professionals in commercially meaningful sectors including accounting and auditing, architecture, urban planning, engineering services, medical and dental, nursing and pharmacy, Computer and Related Services (CRS), and Management Consulting Services.

The India-Malaysia CECA also facilitates cross-border investments between the two countries. It aims to promote investments and create a liberal, facilitative, transparent and competitive investment regime. The CECA creates an attractive operating environment for the business communities of both countries to increase bilateral trade and investment.

Himachal set to become India’s 1st carbon-free state

Himachal Pradesh, which has mandated all government departments to begin environment audit, is on its way to becoming the country's first and the world's second carbon-free state.

People of Himachal will be expected to undergo lifestyle changes, according to the environment master plan and 'Policy & Strategy on Climate Change & Harnessing Carbon Credits' . Beginning with audits, the policy will focus on the functioning of all departments, especially those involved in development.

PROJECT ARROW

Project Arrow has been launched with objective of modernizing the post offices and make visible, tangible and noteworthy differences in the post offices operations that matter to “Aam Aadmi”. It was launched initially on proof of concept basis in 50 post offices in Phase I. After the successful completion of the Phase I it was implemented in 450 post office in Phase II and in 500 post offices in Phase III across the country including the rural areas. Project Arrow aims at comprehensive improvement of the core operations of the post office as well as the ambience in which postal transactions are undertaken.

Project Arrow was launched by department of posts (DoP) in August 2008. This project is an initiative to transform India Post into a vibrant and responsive organization and to make a visible and positive difference in postal operations to benefit the customers.
The department has plans to implement the project in 500 post offices across the country. Initially the department identified 50 post offices across Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, North East, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand covering all the 10 Postal Circles.
Objectives:
The project aims at revitalising the organisation, capitalising on its strengths and recognising and dealing with the weak areas of the department by sustained, sincere and honest team effort. Following are some of the objects of the project:
1. To bring the rural populace in direct communication with the outside world, what department of posts calls them ” Window to the World” for the people in the rural areas.
2. Bring benefits of development to the doorsteps of the rural customers
3. To emerge out as a one-stop shop for retail products
4. To offer a single window facility for banking, money remittances and other financial products and services including social and civic initiatives such as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme and National Old Age Pension Scheme.
5. To strengthen the business development and marketing division of department of posts.
Process:
1. ‘Project Arrow’ aims to transform the existing India Post infrastructure at an estimated investment of Rs 900 crore across the country. The
post offices would undergo a makeover with upgradation of its services through IT enabled procedures.
2. All the post offices under Project Arrow will look similar.
3. The most visible aspect would be the colour of the walls — white with a red border.
4. The counters at such post offices will also have uniformity as with the post boxes.
5. The counters would be painted red and the chairs and benches white.
6. The wall facing the writing ledge in the post office would be painted yellow.
7. The postmen would be given red bags and the staffers would wear red jackets to be worn over their dress.
8. The internal changes proposed are installation of departmental software, training postal staff and improving the services.
9. A “Blue Book” will guide the employees of the depeartment on how to do a particular activity and in what time.

Buffalo Breeds

Bhadavari
Uttar Pradesh

    Govt of Uttar Pradesh, Etawah

Jaffarabadi
Andhra Pradesh

    Buffalo Breeding Centre, NDDB, Nekarikallu

Gujarat

    Akshar Purushottam Mandir Gaushala, Gondal
    Gujarat Agril University, Junagadh
    Sabarmati Ashram Goushala, Bidaj

Maharashtra

    BAIF Development Research Foundation, Uruli-Kanchan

Mehsana
Andhra Pradesh

    Buffalo Breeding Centre, NDDB, Nekarikallu

Gujarat

    Gujarat Agril Univ, Sardar Krishinagar

Murrah
Andhra Pradesh

    Buffalo Breeding Centre, NDDB, Nekarikallu
    Govt. of Andhra Pradesh, Vishakhapatnam
    Govt. Livestock Farms: Banavasi, Horesikullu, Kakinada, Karimnagar, Mamnoor, Reddipalli

Assam

    Govt of Assam: Barpeta, Berhampur, Guwahati, Jagdaur, Khanikar, Pochmile, Silchar

Bihar

    Govt. of Bihar: Sarakela, Sepaya

Goa

    Govt. of Goa, Dhat

Gujarat

    Amul Research & Dev Association, Ode
    Sabarmati Ashram Gaushala, Bidaj

Haryana

    Central Inst for Res on Buffaloes, Hisar
    National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal

Jammu & Kashmir

    Central Cattle Breeding & Research Farm, Beli Charana

Karnataka

    Govt of Karnataka: Bankapur, Hessarghatta, Koila, Kurikuppi, Torongal
    National Dairy Research Inst, Bangalore

Kerala

    Govt of Kerala, Kodapanakunnu
    Kerala Livestock Development Board Ltd: Dhoni, Kulathupuzha, Mattupetty, Peermade

Madhya Pradesh

    Govt of Madhya Pradesh: Anjora, Kiratpur, Ratona

Maharashtra

    BAIF Dev Res Foundation,Uruli Kanchan

   
Punjab

    Govt. of Punjab, Mattewara
    Punjab Agril University, Ludhiana
    Punjab State Coop Milk Producers’ Federation Ltd, Bhattian

Tamil Nadu

    Agril College & Res Inst, Coimbatore
    Central Cattle Breeding Farm, Madras
    Govt. of Tamil Nadu: Hosur, Ooty, Orthand, Pudukottai, Tirunelveli

Uttar Pradesh

    Govt. of Uttar Pradesh: Hastinapur, Lakhimpur, Manjhara, Neelgaon
    Pradeshik Coop Dairy Fed, Moradabad

West Bengal

    Govt. of West Bengal: Haringhatta

Nili-Ravi
Andhra Pradesh

    Buffalo Breeding Centre, NDDB, Nekarikallu

Haryana

    Central Inst for Res on Buffaloes, Hisar

Punjab

    Govt of Punjab, Mattewara
    Military Dairy Farm, Ferozepur
    Punjab Agril University, Ludhiana
    Punjab State Coop Milk Producers’ Federation, Bhattian


Surti
Andhra Pradesh

    Buffalo Breeding Centre, NDDB, Nekarikallu

Goa

    Govt of Goa, Dhat

Gujarat

    Amul Research & Dev Association, Ode
    Central Cattle Breeding Farm, Dhamrod
    Gujarat Agricultural University, Anand
    Kaira Dist Coop Milk Producers' Union, Anand
    Sabarmati Ashram Gaushala, Bidaj

Karnataka

    Buffalo Breeding Station, Tegur
    National Dairy Research Inst, Bangalore
    Univ of Agricultural Scs, Dharwad

Kerala

    Buffalo Breeding Farm, Thiruvazhun
    Govt of Kerala, Kodapanakunnu

Maharashtra

    BAIF Development Research Foundation, Uruli-Kanchan
    Cattle Breeding Farm, Hingoli

Milking more profits with Mehsana buffalo breed

Buffalo husbandry is an important source of income and employment for a large number of the farmers. It is the main plank for the development of dairy industry in India, contributing a major share of total milk production.

Buffaloes occupy a prime place in the dairy economy of our country because they can adapt themselves to harsh climatic conditions, require minimal care, are generally tolerant to infections and can survive on low or poor feeding practices.
The dairy sector in the country is largely dependant on buffalo milk because of its rich fat content. Dairy farmers have always shown a preference for rearing buffaloes than cows.
Even in a herd of 10-15 cows three or four buffaloes will be usually reared as female buffaloes yield milk with a higher fat content than cows. Milk with a good fat content fetches a better price for the farmer.
Fat content

Though there are several buffalo breeds, which are reared for milk and meat, Mehsana buffaloes are mainly reared for their milk.
Their milk has a fat content of about 6.5 to 7 per cent and they can yield 7-9 litres of milk in a day.
Milk yield

With good management practices the milk yield can go up to even 10-15 litres according to researchers at the Livestock Research Station (LRS), S. D. Agricultural University, Sardarkrushinagar, Gujarat.
The breed is mainly distributed in Mehsana, Banaskantha, Sabarkantha and Patan districts of North Gujarat.
The animals are usually black or fawn grey in colour, some times with white markings on the face, legs and tip of the tail.

Animals weight

The horns are short and curved. The breed is reputed for regularity in breeding and persistent milk production. Adult male buffaloes weigh 530-600 kg and females 425-475 kg.
Unlike other breeds, Mehsana buffaloes require minimal care and attention. They can be reared in well-ventilated sheds as well as under tree shade in the open.
The animals can be fed green grass when available, and also with dry fodder such as wheat straw bajra, jowar and cotton seed cake.
Female buffaloes come to heat in 20-21 days. The gestation period lasts for about 310 days.
Though the breed is resistant to major infections that afflict cattle, farmers are advised to regularly deworm and vaccinate the animals against foot and mouth disease and Haemorrhagic septicemia, which is a common infection among dairy animals according to reseachers.
Heat detection in buffaloes is done by parading vasectomised bulls twice daily among the herd.
Buffaloes in oestrus (sexual impulse) are artificially inseminated.
Heat detection

Heat detection should be done on the 60th day from the date of last calving, and after 20 months of age.
The age at first calving is 41 to 45 months, which can be reduced to 34-35 months under intensive care.
Depending upon milk yield, the price of the animal ranges from Rs.30,000 - Rs. 40,000.

Paleontology

Paleontology is a rich field, imbued with a long and interesting past and an even more intriguing and hopeful future. Many people think paleontology is the study of fossils. In fact, paleontology is much more.
Paleontology is traditionally divided into various subdisciplines:

Micropaleontology: Study of generally microscopic fossils, regardless of the group to which they belong. Paleobotany: Study of fossil plants; traditionally includes the study of fossil algae and fungi in addition to land plants. Palynology: Study of pollen and spores, both living and fossil, produced by land plants and protists. Invertebrate Paleontology: Study of invertebrate animal fossils, such as mollusks, echinoderms, and others. Vertebrate Paleontology: Study of vertebrate fossils, from primitive fishes to mammals. Human Paleontology (Paleoanthropology): The study of prehistoric human and proto-human fossils. Taphonomy: Study of the processes of decay, preservation, and the formation of fossils in general. Ichnology: Study of fossil tracks, trails, and footprints. Paleoecology: Study of the ecology and climate of the past, as revealed both by fossils and by other methods.

In short, paleontology is the study of what fossils tell us about the ecologies of the past, about evolution, and about our place, as humans, in the world. Paleontology incorporates knowledge from biology, geology, ecology, anthropology, archaeology, and even computer science to understand the processes that have led to the origination and eventual destruction of the different types of organisms since life arose. The exhibits that we have set up here are created by paleontogists. More than just an overview of the diversity that has existed through time on this planet, the exhibits also highlight some of the research that paleontologists are conducting at the Museum of Paleontology.

National e-Governance Plan

Over the years, a large number of initiatives have been undertaken by various State Governments and Central Ministries to usher in an era of e-Government. Sustained efforts have been made at multiple levels to improve the delivery of public services and simplify the process of accessing them.
e-Governance in India has steadily evolved from computerization of Government Departments to initiatives that encapsulate the finer points of Governance, such as citizen centricity, service orientation and transparency. Lessons from previous e-Governance initiatives have played an important role in shaping the progressive e-Governance strategy of the country. Due cognizance has been taken of the notion that to speed up e-Governance implementation across the various arms of Government at National, State, and Local levels, a programme approach needs to be adopted, guided by common vision and strategy. This approach has the potential of enabling huge savings in costs through sharing of core and support infrastructure, enabling interoperability through standards, and of presenting a seamless view of Government to citizens.
The National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), takes a holistic view of e-Governance initiatives across the country, integrating them into a collective vision, a shared cause. Around this idea, a massive countrywide infrastructure reaching down to the remotest of villages is evolving, and large-scale digitization of records is taking place to enable easy, reliable access over the internet. The ultimate objective is to bring public services closer home to citizens, as articulated in the Vision Statement of NeGP.
The Government approved the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), comprising of 27 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) and 8 components, on May 18, 2006. The Government has accorded approval to the vision, approach, strategy, key components, implementation methodology, and management structure for NeGP. However, the approval of NeGP does not constitute financial approval(s) for all the Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) and components under it. The existing or ongoing projects in the MMP category, being implemented by various Central Ministries, States, and State Departments would be suitably augmented and enhanced to align with the objectives of NeGP.

CIVIL SERVICES MAINS ESSAY MODEL QUESTIONS

CIVIL SERVICES MAINS ESSAY 

MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2011

Write an essay on any one of the following topics:

• ‘Corruptionalism in India’
• “Mutual understanding make good neighbors”
• ‘haves’ and ‘have not’ of our Indian society”.
• How Geography save India?
• Fourth pillar of Indian’s
• Showcase Patriotism spread in India
• India’ as a global leader.
• Traditions importance in India.
• Science & Tech development story of current India.
• Role of social networks in any public movements?
• How to failed state impressed neighbors countries?