Showing posts with label APPSC GROUP-1. Show all posts
Showing posts with label APPSC GROUP-1. Show all posts

Monday, September 3, 2012

GROUP-I SERVICES RECRUITEMNT NEW CUT OFF MARK

The APPSC has conducted the Group-I prelims examination on 27th May 2012 and announced the list of eligible candidates qualified for the Mains Exam. Subsequently as per orders of Hon’ble APAT, the key was published and there were objections to this key. After verification of all objections received the final answer key was published on 2nd Sep 2012. As per this key the Cut off mark is 91 and total of 845 candidates are proposed to be deleted from the list of eligible candidates announced earlier as they failed to secure the cut off marks as per the final answer key.

For More Details Click Here

Friday, August 31, 2012

APPSC GROUP-I SERVICES (18/2011) CUT OFF MARK

APPSC GROUP-I SERVICES (18/2011) SCREENING TEST 

  Answer Key for 4 Series & Cut Off Mark

CUT OFF MARK IS : 88

SERIES: A
Q.Nos. 6,8,10,69 & 104 Cancelled. Five marks added to each candidate.
Q.No. 17 having two answers (1&2) as per Commn's Orders in C.No. 298/CD/2012, dated: 13/06/2012.


SERIES: B
Q.Nos. 14,36,38,40 & 99 Cancelled. Five marks added to each candidate.
Q.No. 47 having two answers (1&2) as per Commn's Orders in C.No. 298/CD/2012, dated: 13/06/2012. 


SERIES: C
Q.Nos. 9,74,126,128 & 130 Cancelled. Five marks added to each candidate.
Q.No. 137 having two answers (1&2) as per Commn's Orders in C.No. 298/CD/2012,dated:13/06/2012. 
 

SERIES: D
Q.Nos. 39,96,98,100 & 134 Cancelled. Five marks added to each candidate.
Q.No. 107 having two answers (1&2) as per Commn's Orders in C.No. 298/CD/2012, dated:13/0/2012.
  

Wednesday, June 13, 2012

Group-I Services(18/2011 & 15/2011) Screening Test- Results

The Screening test held on 27/05/2012 (Sunday) from 10-30 AM to 1-00 PM for the posts falling under Group-I Services which were notified in Notification No.15/2011 (Limited) and 18/2011 (General), the candidates whose Register Numbers are given  have provisionally qualified for appearing to the Main Examination which will be held from 3rd September 2012 at 5 centres Viz. Hyderabad, Visakahpatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupathi and Warangal only.

Group-I Services(18/2011 & 15/2011) Screening Test- Results   Click Here

Sunday, May 27, 2012

APPSC GROUP-I PRELIMS 2012 KEY

APPSC 2012 Group - I preliminary Exam Cut off marks Analysis



Andhra pradesh public service commission (APPSC) conducted Group-1 preliminary examination on 27/05/2012. Total 1,73,265 candidates attend for this exam. 72.50% attend the preliminary exam.
 
This is only a screening test which means these marks are considered only to select candidates to main exam in the ratio of 1:50. As there is 312 posts,  generally 15,600 aspirants are going to permitted to take main exam. There is no reservation or quota in selecting candidates for main exam from preliminary examination.

As per the experts opinion question Paper is relatively easy or average.


The cutoff marks estimation vary from expert to expert.
 
Generally it is expected to between 90 to 95 marks.

Those candidates who got more than 95 (+/- 5)  marks they may Start preparation for Group-I main exams.

Saturday, December 17, 2011

GROUP-I SERVICES MAIN EXAMINATION RESULTS

GROUP-I SERVICES MAIN EXAMINATION RESULTS (GENERAL RECRUITMENT)
NOTIFICATION NO. 39/2008 & Supplemental No.10/2009 


Results Click Here

Sunday, September 11, 2011

APPSC Group-I Mains Model Papers

                                                           

Wednesday, August 3, 2011

Essential Interrogative Terms and Their Meanings in the APPSC Group - I Mains Exam


Analyze: To find out what something is made up of by identifying its components.

Critically Analyze: To find out critically what something is made up of by identifying its components.

Assess: To examine something, to determine something in order to judge or evaluate it.

Critically Assess: Assessment containing or involving comments and opinions that analyze or judge something, especially in a detailed way.

Bring out the Significance: Bring out the implied or intended meaning.

Capture the Movement: To seize or gain control over a fast changing.

Comment: An implied or indirect judgment.

Consider: To think carefully about something.

Debate: To talk about something at length and in detail, especially as part of a formal exchange of opinion.

Describe: To give an account of something by giving details of its characteristics.

Do you agree? Give examples: To have the same opinion about something as somebody else. Decorate with examples.

Discuss: To write or speak about the topic formally/officially.

Elaborate: To organize with thoroughness and careful attention to detail.

Elucidate: To explain and clarify something.

Evaluate: To consider or examine something in order to judge its value.

Examine: To study or investigate something.

Critically Examine: Critically study or investigate something.

Examine closely: To study or investigate something carefully or thoroughly.

Explain: To give reason for something that has happened, often as justification for it. To justify.

Formulate: To draw something up carefully and in detail.

Give Argument in favor of something: To give reason to support your argument.

Give your judgment in favor: To form sound opinions and make sensible decisions or reliable guesses.

Investigate: To take a look and see what has happened.

Justify: See Explain.

List out the Salient Features: Arrange the noticeable and striking distinctive features.

Highlight the Salient Features: Take out the best part.

Tuesday, June 14, 2011

INDIAN ECONOMY

                                                           

Saturday, June 11, 2011

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper

Indian History
(Exam Held on 20-2-2011)

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)

3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)

4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)

5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)


6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)

7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)

8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)

9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)

10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)

11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)

12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)

13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)

14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)

16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)

18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)

19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)

20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)

21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)

23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)

25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)

26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)

27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)

28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)

30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)

31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)

34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)

36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)

37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)

38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)

39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)

40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)

41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)

42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)

44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)

46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)

47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)

48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)

50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

51. Bahlul Lodi’s significant achievement was the successful war against the underwritten kingdom of—
(A) Mewat
(B) Jaunpur
(C) Chandwar
(D) Sambhal
Ans : (B)

52. Rulers of which kingdom built Atala Masjid and Lal Darwaza Masjid ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Khandesh
(C) Malwa
(D) Jaunpur
Ans : (D)

53. Rai Bharmal wrote on Muslim Literary traditions in the following language—
(A) Persian
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Arabic
(D) Turkish
Ans : (A)

54. ‘Chaitanya Charitamrita’ was authored by—
(A) Wasweshwara
(B) Madhav
(C) Ramanand
(D) Krishnadas Kaviraj
Ans : (D)

55. Who succeeded Nizamuddin Aulia ?
(A) Sheikh Farid
(B) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chiraghi-Delhi
(C) Sheikh Salim Chishti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

56. Raidas, Sena and Kabir were the followers of—
(A) Namdeo
(B) Ramanuj
(C) Vallabhacharya
(D) Ramanand
Ans : (D)

57. When was Vijayanagar visited by Abdurrajjak ?
(A) 1443
(B) 1433
(C) 1423
(D) 1427
Ans : (A)

58. Tuluva dynasty was founded by—
(A) Narasa Nasyaka
(B) Immadi Narsimha
(C) Vir Narsimha
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

59. Who founded the independent Bahamani kingdom in South India ?
(A) Abu Muzaffar Alauddin Bahmanshah
(B) Mujahid Shah
(C) Muhammad Shah I
(D) Adil Shah
Ans : (A)

60. Who founded the independent Muslim kingdom of Malwa ?
(A) Hoshangshah
(B) Mahmudshah
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) Dilawarkhan
Ans : (D)

61. Babur had three wives. Which one of the following was not his wife ?
(A) Maham
(B) Gulrus
(C) Gulbadan
(D) Dilbar
Ans : (C)

62. Who was Mehdi Khwaza ?
(A) Ruler of Bihar
(B) Prime Minister of Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Brother-in-law of Humayun
(D) Brother of Babur
Ans : (C)

63. Humayun ascended the throne at Agra on—
(A) 7th January 1530
(B) 29th December 1530
(C) 23rd September 1530
(D) 16th February 1530
Ans : (B)

64. Which of the following statements is true of the Sher Shah Suri ?
(A) He was a fanatic Muslim
(B) He was a staunch Muslim but not a fanatic
(C) He was a staunch Muslim and ill-treated Hindus
(D) He was intolerant towards other religions
Ans : (B)

65. Which out of the following was not one of the purposes of ‘Sarais’ built during Sher Shah ?
(A) Post-house
(B) For travellers
(C) For officers
(D) Warehouse for arms and ammunition
Ans : (D)

66. Who was not appointed as Vazir during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) Bahadurkhan Uzbeg
(B) Shamsuddin Atkakhan
(C) Todarmal
(D) Nizamuddin Khalifa
Ans : (A)

67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(A) Akbar—Ralph Fich
(B) Darashikoh—Manucci
(C) Jahangir—Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Shah Jahan—Jourdon
Ans : (D)

68. Which of the following statements is true of Akbar’s policy towards the Hindus ?
(A) He abolished the pilgrim tax but not the Jaziya
(B) He abolished the Jaziya, but not the pilgrim tax
(C) He abolished both the Jaziya and the pilgrim tax
(D) He neither abolished the pilgrim tax nor the Jaziya
Ans : (C)

69 Who was the author of ‘Nuskhai-Dilkusha’ ?
(A) Khafi Khan
(B) Murshidkuli Khan
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Bhimsen Burhanpuri
Ans : (D)

70. Guru Govind Singh was killed in 1708 at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Keeratpur
(C) Nanded
(D) Anandpur
Ans : (C)

71. Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdusamad were the court painter during the time of—
(A) Humayun, Akbar
(B) Akbar, Jahangir
(C) Jahangir, Shah Jahan
(D) Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following elements was not found in Akbar’s architecture ?
(A) Use of red sandstone
(B) Hindu elements
(C) Foliated arches
(D) Charbagh surrounding the tombs
Ans : (C)

73. Who composed ‘Ganga Lahri’ ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Panditraj Jagannath
(D) Haridasa
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following was not a silver coin during Akbar ?
(A) Jalal
(B) Dam
(C) Darab
(D) Pandau
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following revolts had agrarian causes at its root ?
(A) Rajput revolt
(B) Satnami and Jat revolt
(C) Sikh revolt
(D) Maratha revolt
Ans : (B)

76. From whom Shahji received the jagir of Poona ?
(A) Mughals
(B) Adilshah
(C) Nizamshahi
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (B)

77. What is ‘Mokasa’ ?
(A) Jagir
(B) Religious practice
(C) Cavalry
(D) Religious endowment
Ans : (A)

78. Who was not alive at the time of Shivaji’s Coronation ?
(A) Ganga Bhatt
(B) Tukaram
(C) Ramdas
(D) Dadaji Konddeva
Ans : (D)

79. Which of the following Peshwas is connected with the treaty of Sagola ?
(A) Balaji Bajirao
(B) Balaji Vishwanath
(C) Bajirao I
(D) Bajirao II
Ans : (A)

80. In which year Ahilyabai Holkar breathed her last ?
(A) 1792
(B) 1793
(C) 1794
(D) 1795
Ans : (D)

81. The French East India Company was formed in—
(A) 1664 AD
(B) 1660 AD
(C) 1656 AD
(D) 1680 AD
Ans : (A)

82. La Bourdonnais was the Governor of—
(A) Madras
(B) Pondicherry
(C) Mauritius
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

83. Mir Kasim removed his court from Calcutta to—
(A) Patna
(B) Dacca
(C) Monghir
(D) Purnea
Ans : (C)

84. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) English and the French
(B) English and the Marathas
(C) English and the Nawab of Carnatic
(D) English and Hyderali
Ans : (A)

85. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power of—
(A) French
(B) Dutch
(C) Portuguese
(D) Danes
Ans : (B)

86. The Treaty of Surat was concluded by the British with the following Maratha chief—
(A) Narayan Rao
(B) Madhav Rao
(C) Nana Phadnvis
(D) Raghoba
Ans : (D)

87. The triple alliance against Tipu was formed by Cornwallis consisted of the following—
(A) The English, Nizam and the Marathas
(B) The English, Nizam and Awadh
(C) The English, Nizam and Carnatic
(D) The English, Marathas and Carnatic
Ans : (A)

88. In the Second Sikh War the decisive battle was fought at—
(A) Chilianwala
(B) Peshawar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Multan
Ans : (C)

89. In the Third Maratha War, the English defeated Peshwa Bajirao II at—
(A) Mahidpur
(B) Sitabuldi
(C) Kirki
(D) Bassein
Ans : (D)

90. The Treaty of Shrirangpattam took place in—
(A) 1791
(B) 1792
(C) 1793
(D) 1794
Ans : (D)

91. Which of the following states was not annexed to British Empire by Dalhousie under the doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Baghat
(B) Nagpur
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Benaras
Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following rebellions is associated with Sidhu and Kanhu ?
(A) Munda Rebellion
(B) Kole Rebellion
(C) Santhal Rebellion
(D) Bhil Rebellion
Ans : (C)

93. The following officer was connected with the suppression of Thugee—
(A) Hastings
(B) Sleeman
(C) Bentinck
(D) Aukland
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following British Officers was not in favour of annexation of Awadh ?
(A) Outram
(B) Napier
(C) Hugh Rose
(D) Sleeman
Ans : (D)

95. Charles Metcalf was the Governor General of India during—
(A) 1835-36
(B) 1839-40
(C) 1837-38
(D) 1832-33
Ans : (A)

96. Sindh was invaded during the following Governor General’s time—
(A) Lord Aukland
(B) Lord Ellenborough
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans : (B)

97. The Second Burmese War was fought in the year—
(A) 1849
(B) 1850
(C) 1851
(D) 1852
Ans : (B)

98. Which one of the following Acts abolished the trading rights of the East India Company ?
(A) Regulating Act of 1773
(B) Charter Act of 1813
(C) Charter Act of 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ryotwari Settlement : Madras
(B) Talukdari Settlement : Bombay
(C) Permanent Settlement : Bengal
(D) Mahalwari Settlement : North-Western Province
Ans : (B)

100. The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under the British rule was due to—
1. Fragmentation of Landholdings
2. Decline of cottage industries
3. Lack of development of irrigational facilities
4. Introduction of cash crops Which of these are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

101. At Lucknow the revolt of 1857 broke out on—
(A) May 30, 1857
(B) June 4, 1857
(C) May 15, 1857
(D) June 15, 1857
Ans : (B)

102. The Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta was founded by—
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Sir Williams Jones
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Keshabchandra Sen
Ans : (B)

103. The Theosophical Society allied itself to the—
(A) Christian revival movement
(B) Islamic revival movement
(C) Hindu revival movement
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

104. Which of the following statements about the Ramakrishna Mission is wrong ?
(A) It held the pure Vedantic doctrine as its ideal
(B) It aimed at the development of the highest spirituality in man
(C) It prohibited the worship of images
(D) It recognised modern developments in Science and Technology
Ans : (C)

105. Fifth Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1889 at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Dacca
Ans : (C)

106. The moderates and extremists were united in the Congress Session of—
(A) Lahore
(B) Bombay
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

107. Who among the following was not in Khilafat Committee ?
(A) Majhar ul Haq
(B) Hasrat Mohani
(C) Maulana Shauqat Ali
(D) Hakim Azmalkhan
Ans : (A)

108. Who among the following was the president of All India Trade Union Congress in 1929 ?
(A) M. N. Roy
(B) N. M. Joshi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

109. Swaraj Party was formed by—
(A) C. R. Das
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

110. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was concluded between—
(A) Congress and the British Government
(B) Muslim League and the British Government
(C) Congress and the Muslim League
(D) Congress, the Muslim League and the British Government
Ans : (C)

111. An All Party Conference appointed a sub-committee with Ali Imam, Tejbahadur Sapru and Subhash Bose. Who was presiding this subcommittee ?
(A) Maulana Azad
(B) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(C) Madan Mohan Malviya
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

112. Who among the following participated in all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil : Second Lahore Conspiracy Case
(B) Surya Sen : Chatgaon Case
(C) Bhagat Singh : Kakori Conspiracy Case
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad : Delhi Bomb Case
Ans : (B)

114. When were the Congress Governments formed in seven out of eleven provinces ?
(A) July 1935
(B) July 1936
(C) July 1937
(D) July 1938
Ans : (C)

115. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chelmsford : Rowlatt Act
(B) Lord Reading : Delhi Darbar
(C) Lord Willington : Arriving of Prince of Wales in India
(D) Lord Hardinge : II Round Table Conference
Ans : (A)

116. Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the government of Free India at—
(A) Burma
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

117. In December 1931 two school girl students killed the District Judge in Komilla by shooting—
(A) Suniti Choudhary and Bina Das
(B) Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary
(C) Bina Das and Kalpana Datta
(D) Kalpana Datta and Shanti Ghosh
Ans : (B)

118. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Chuar Revolt : Orissa
(B) Sanyasi Revolt : Bihar
(C) Parlakhemundi Revolt : Orissa
(D) Rampa Revolt : Karnatak
Ans : (B)

119. The following countries undertook the responsibility of organising the Bandung Conference—
(A) Indonesia, Burma, Cambodia
(B) India, Burma, Indonesia
(C) Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Cambodia
(D) China, Japan, Thailand
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution declares it is a primary duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the “Improvement of the Public Health” ?
(A) Article 46
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 49
Ans : (B)

Thursday, June 9, 2011

U.N. Convention against Corruption Ratified by India


India ratified the United Nations Convention against Corruption on May 12, 2011. The convention, which is the first legally binding international instrument used to fight corruption, sets out ways for countries to prevent and criminalize corruption, and it requires countries to return assets obtained through corruption to the state from which they came. According to convention, member-countries are bound to render mutual legal assistance towards prosecution of offenders as well in tracing, freezing, and confiscating the proceeds of corruption.
The ratification by India comes as the country reels from several corruption scandals that have led to everything from sacked ministers to hunger strikes. In its resolution 55/61 of 4 December 2000, the General Assembly recognized that an effective international legal instrument against corruption, independent of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (resolution 55/25) was desirable and decided to establish an ad hoc committee for the negotiation of such an instrument in Vienna at the headquarters of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.
The text of the United Nations Convention against Corruption was negotiated during seventh sessions of the Ad Hoc Committee for the Negotiation of the Convention against Corruption, held between 21 January 2002 and 1 October 2003.
The Convention approved by the Ad Hoc Committee was adopted by the General Assembly by resolution 58/4 of 31 October 2003. The General Assembly, in its resolution 57/169 of 18 December 2002, accepted the offer of the Government of Mexico to host a high-level political signing conference in Merida for the purpose of signing the United Nations Convention against Corruption.
In accordance with article 68 (1) of resolution 58/4, the United Nations Convention against Corruption entered into force on 14 December 2005. A Conference of the States Parties is established to review implementation and facilitate activities required by the Convention.
In accordance with article 68 (1) which reads as follows: 
"1.This Convention shall enter into force on the ninetieth day after the date of deposit of the thirtieth instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession. For the purpose of this paragraph, any instrument deposited by a regional economic integration organization shall not be counted as additional to those deposited by member States of such organization. 
2. For each State or regional economic integration organization ratifying, accepting, approving or acceding to this Convention after the deposit of the thirtieth instrument of such action, this Convention shall enter into force on the thirtieth day after the date of deposit by such State or organization of the relevant instrument or on the date this Convention enters into force pursuant to paragraph 1 of this article, whichever is later."
Highlights of Convention
Prevention
Corruption can be prosecuted after the fact, but first and foremost, it requires prevention. An entire chapter of the Convention is dedicated to prevention, with measures directed at both the public and private sectors. These include model preventive policies, such as the establishment of anticorruption bodies and enhanced transparency in the financing of election campaigns and political parties. States must Endeavour to ensure that their public services are subject to safeguards that promote efficiency, transparency and recruitment based on merit. Once recruited, public servants should be subject to codes of conduct, requirements for financial and other disclosures, and appropriate disciplinary measures. Transparency and accountability in matters of public finance must also be promoted, and specific requirements are established for the prevention of corruption, in the particularly critical areas of the public sector, such as the judiciary and public procurement. Those who use public services must expect a high standard of conduct from their public servants. Preventing public corruption also requires an effort from all members of society at large. For these reasons, the Convention calls on countries to promote actively the involvement of non-governmental and community-based organizations, as well as other elements of civil society, and to raise public awareness of corruption and what can be done about it. Article 5 of the Convention enjoins each State Party to establish and promote effective practices aimed at the prevention of corruption.
Criminalization
The Convention requires countries to establish criminal and other offences to cover a wide range of acts of corruption, if these are not already crimes under domestic law. In some cases, States are legally obliged to establish offences; in other cases, in order to take into account differences in domestic law, they are required to consider doing so. The Convention goes beyond previous instruments of this kind, criminalizing not only basic forms of corruption such as bribery and the embezzlement of public funds, but also trading in influence and the concealment and laundering of the proceeds of corruption. Offences committed in support of corruption, including money-laundering and obstructing justice, are also dealt with. Convention offences also deal with the problematic areas of private-sector corruption.
International Cooperation
Countries agreed to cooperate with one another in every aspect of the fight against corruption, including prevention, investigation, and the prosecution of offenders. Countries are bound by the Convention to render specific forms of mutual legal assistance in gathering and transferring evidence for use in court, to extradite offenders. Countries are also required to undertake measures which will support the tracing, freezing, seizure and confiscation of the proceeds of corruption.
Asset Recovery
In a major breakthrough, countries agreed on asset-recovery, which is stated explicitly as a fundamental principle of the Convention. This is a particularly important issue for many developing countries where high-level corruption has plundered the national wealth, and where resources are badly needed for reconstruction and the rehabilitation of societies under new governments. Reaching agreement on this chapter has involved intensive negotiations, as the needs of countries seeking the illicit assets had to be reconciled with the legal and procedural safeguards of the countries whose assistance is sought.
Several provisions specify how cooperation and assistance will be rendered. In particular, in the case of embezzlement of public funds, the confiscated property would be returned to the state requesting it; in the case of proceeds of any other offence covered by the Convention, the property would be returned providing the proof of ownership or recognition of the damage caused to a requesting state; in all other cases, priority consideration would be given to the return of confiscated property to the requesting state, to the return of such property to the prior legitimate owners or to compensation of the victims.
Effective asset-recovery provisions will support the efforts of countries to redress the worst effects of corruption while sending at the same time, a message to corrupt officials that there will be no place to hide their illicit assets. Accordingly, article 51 provides for the return of assets to countries of origin as a fundamental principle of this Convention. Article 43 obliges state parties to extend the widest possible cooperation to each other in the investigation and prosecution of offences defined in the Convention. With regard to asset recovery in particular, the article provides inter alia that "In matters of international cooperation, whenever dual criminality is considered a requirement, it shall be deemed fulfilled irrespective of whether the laws of the requested State Party place the offence within the same category of offence or denominate the offence by the same terminology as the requesting State Party, if the conduct underlying the offence for which assistance is sought is a criminal offence under the laws of both States Parties".
Some of the Scams in India
1) 2G Spectrum Scam
We have had a number of scams in India; but none bigger than the scam involving the process of allocating unified access service licenses. At the heart of this Rs.1.76-lakh crore worth of scam is the former Telecom minister A Raja – who according to the CAG, has evaded norms at every level as he carried out the dubious 2G license awards in 2008 at a throw-away price which were pegged at 2001 prices.
2) Commonwealth Games Scam
Another feather in the cap of Indian scandal list is Commonwealth Games. Even before the long awaited sporting bonanza could see the day of light, the grand event was soaked in the allegations of corruption. It is estimated that out of Rs. 70000 crore spent on the Games, only half the said amount was spent on Indian sportspersons.
The Central Vigilance Commission, involved in probing the alleged corruption in various Commonwealth Games-related projects, has found discrepancies in tenders – like payment to non-existent parties, will-full delays in execution of contracts, over-inflated price and bungling in purchase of equipment through tendering – and misappropriation of funds.
3) Housing Scam
Congress party politicians, bureaucrats and military officials have been accused of taking over a plush Mumbai apartment block intended for war widows. After the story broke in local media the government sacked the powerful chief minister of western Maharashtra state, who is a member of the Congress party.
Following a CBI probe, the environment ministry ordered the demolition of the 31-storey building in January, citing the violation of environmental and land-use rules. The Arabian Sea-facing block with 103 apartments is built in an upscale Mumbai district. Apartments were sold for as little as $130,000 each, while local media estimated their value at $1.8 million each.
4) IPL Scam
The recent scam in IPL and embezzlement with respect to bidding for various franchisees. The scandal already claimed the portfolios of two big-wigs in the form of Shashi Tharoor and former IPL chief Lalit Modi.
5) ISRO and Devas Deal
The deal which caught Antrix in controversy is the Devas deal. Devas is a Bangalore based Multimedia company. The Devas multimedia was set up by one US based company namely Forge Advisors. Most of the members of this Devas multimedia are ex – ISRO officials. The Devas Multimedia had signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Antrix in 2003 . According to this deal, Devas will get 90 % of the S band transponders of two Indian satellites on lease for its digital audio broadcast services. The two new Indian satellites whose S transponders are getting to Devas on deal were GSAT 6 and GSAT 6A.
Devas Multimedia and Antrix signed the contract in 2005 January. But Antrix didn't informed either space commission or union cabinet that the lion portion of the capacity of these satellites will be leased to Devas Multimedia. Usually the S band transponders are used for strategic purposes and here it was leased to a private firm.
6) Loan Bribery Scam
Top officials of Indian banks, lenders and financial firms have been accused of taking bribes to grant corporate loans. The bribes were allegedly paid by private finance firm Money Matters Financial Services (MONE.BO), which acted as a "mediator and facilitator" for the loan beneficiaries.
7) Telgi Scam
Abdul Karim Telgi had mastered the art of forgery in printing duplicate stamp papers and sold them to banks and other institutions. The tentacles of the fake stamp and stamp paper case had penetrated 12 states and was estimated at a whooping Rs. 20000 crore plus. The Telgi clearly had a lot of support from government departments that were responsible for the production and sale of high security stamps.
8) Satyam Scam
The scam at Satyam Computer Services is something that will shatter the peace and tranquillity of Indian investors and shareholder community beyond repair. Satyam is the biggest fraud in the corporate history to the tune of Rs. 14000 crore. The company’s disgraced former chairman Ramalinga Raju kept everyone in the dark for a decade by fudging the books of accounts for several years and inflating revenues and profit figures of Satyam.
9) Bofors Scam
The Bofors scandal is known as the hallmark of Indian corruption. The Bofors scam was a major corruption scandal in India in the 1980s; when the then PM Rajiv Gandhi and several others including a powerful NRI family named the Hindujas, were accused of receiving kickbacks from Bofors AB for winning a bid to supply India’s 155 mm field howitzer.
The Swedish State Radio had broadcast a startling report about an undercover operation carried out by Bofors, Sweden’s biggest arms manufacturer, whereby $16 million were allegedly paid to members of PM Rajiv Gandhi’s Congress. Most of all, the Bofors scam had a strong emotional appeal because it was a scam related to the defense services and India’s security interests.
10) The Fodder Scam
If you haven’t heard of Bihar’s fodder scam of 1996, you might still be able to recognize it by the name of “Chara Ghotala ,” as it is popularly known in the vernacular language. In this corruption scandal worth Rs.900 crore, an unholy nexus was traced involved in fabrication of “vast herds of fictitious livestock” for which fodder, medicine and animal husbandry equipment was supposedly procured.
11) The Hawala Scandal
The Hawala case to the tune of $18 million bribery scandal, which came in the open in 1996, involved payments allegedly received by country’s leading politicians through hawala brokers. Thus, for the first time in Indian politics, it gave a feeling of open loot all around the public, involving all the major political players being accused of having accepted bribes and also alleged connections about payments being channelled to Hizbul Mujahideen militants in Kashmir.

Wednesday, May 11, 2011

INDIA & ECONOMIC SURVEY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.     The total length of the Coastline of India including mainland, Lakshadweep Island and Andaman & Nikobar Island is
    (a) 2933 km     (b) 7516.6 km
    (c) 6230     (d) 7215 km
2.    Which country has not the common border with India?
    (a) China     (b) Bhutan
    (c) Maldives     (d) Nepal
3.     The Brahmaputra rises from Tibet. In Tibet this river is known as
    (a) Padma         (b) Tsangpo
    (c) Dihang         (d) Yamuna
4.     Sri Lanka is separated from India by
    (a) Palk strait     (b) Arabian Sea
    (c) Gulf of Adan     (d) Gulf Jafana
5.    Which one of these not a principal tributary of the river Brahmaputra in India?
    (a) Subansiri (b) Dhansiri
    (c) Chanan (d) Pulhimari
6.    Which river of Daccan region not flowing eastward?
    (a) Godavari (b) Krishna
    (c) Mahanadi (d) Tapti
7.    Which is the correct sequence of the rivers flowing in southern peninsular India in context of length?
    (a) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Mahanadi
    (b) Godavari, Cauvery, Mahanadi, Krishna
    (c) Krishna, Cauvery, Godavari, Mahanadi
    (d) Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Cauvery
8.     Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is situated in which city of India?
    (a) New Delhi     (b) Kolkata
    (c) Surat     (d) Mumbai
9.    What is the number of spokes in wheel of Ashoka Chakra placed in the National Flag?
    (a) 40     (b) 24
    (c) 16     (d) 32
10.    The new flag code of India ‘flag code’ has taken effect from
    (a) 26 January 2002
    (b) 26 January 2006
    (c) 26 January 2008
    (d) 26 January 2009
11.     The National Anthem ‘Jan Gana Man’, composed originally in Bengali by
(a) Bankim Chand
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Arbindo Ghosh
(d) Somnath Chatterjee
12.    When was the constitutional Assembly adopted the National Anthem?
(a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 24 January 2006
(c) 24 January, 1949 (d) 26 January, 1949.
13.     The National Song ‘Vande Mataram’ composed in Sanskrit by
(a) Bankim Chandra
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Jyoti Basu
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
14.    Match the following:
    List I             List II
    (State)         (Density of population)
    A. Haryana         1. 109
    B. Orissa             2. 165
    C. Rajasthan         3. 236
    D. Himachal Pradesh    4. 478
    Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
15.    Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) National Tree – The Banyan
(b) National Fruit – Mango
(c) National Bird – Swan
(d) National Animal – Tiger
16. Indian Constitution was adopted by     constitutional assembly on
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 26 November 1949
(c) 26 November, 1950
(d) 15 August, 1950
17. At present, what is the number of members in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 244 (b) 233
(c) 250 (d) 230
18. In order to be chosen a member of parliament, what is the lower age limit?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years
(c) 35 years (d) 40 years
19.Which one is not a standing committee of the parliament?
(a) Public account committee
(b) Committee on estimates
(c) Public undertakings committee
(d) Committee on MPCADS
20.Which department is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
(a) Department of official language
(b) Department of boarder management
(c) Department of states
(d) Department of public distribution
21. The chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by
(a) The President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister (d) HRD Minister
22. On which day the civil services day celebrated every year in India?
(a) April 28 (b) April 21
(c) June 5 (d) July 10
23. A committee of parliament on official languages was constituted in which year?
(a) 1956 (b) 1976 (c) 1983 (d) 1987
24.Which statement is not true about Inter-state Council?
(a) The inter-state council is a recommendatory body.
(b) It was constituted in year 1990 under Article 263 of Indian constitution.
(c) Prime Minister is the chairman of the interstate council.
(d) None
25.     Consider the following statements
1. Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body.
2. The election commission was established on 25 January 1950.
3. The president appoints chief election commissioner and election commissioners.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
26. The National Bamboo Mission was launched in 2006-07 as a centrally sponsored scheme to promote the growth of bamboo sector. Which one is not the aim of National Bamboo Mission.
(a) Plantation Development
(b) Handicrafts Development
(c) Marketing
(d) Establishment of paper industries.
27.    Which one of these are not correct about Micro irrigation?
(a) The main objective of this scheme is to increase the coverage of area under improved method of irrigation.
(b) Quality production is the main concern of Micro irrigation.
(c) During the current year  10 crore has been earmarked for North East region.
(d) This is only implemented in western India.
28. Recognizing the importance of institutional support for the development of horticulture in the North East region, the establishment of a central Institute of Horticulture has been approved for implementation in 2005-06. In which state the central Institute of horticulture established.
(a) Manipur (b) Nagaland
(c) Tripura (d) Mizoram
29.    What is the objective of multi state cooperative societies Act 2002?
(a) Use of modern tools for more efficient and transparent functioning.
(b) Enabling the business growth by providing a conducive environment.
(c) Strengthening and expanding the multistate co-operative societies.
(d) All of the above.
30. Kisan Call Centres (KCC) have been functioning since
(a) 21 January 2004 (b) 26 January 2005
(c) 26 January 2006 (d) 21 January 2007
31.What is the number of Farmers benefited with Kisan Call centres since start functioning of this programme till December 2010?
(a) 47.19 Lakh (b) 36.13 Lakh
(c) 38.17 Lakh (d) 45.12 Lakh
32. National e-governance plan in Agriculture is started by which department of centre to improve services accessible to farmers using information and communication technology?
(a) Department of Agriculture & Cooperation
(b) Department of IT
(c) Department of HRD
(d) Department of Irrigation
33. The National Oilseeds and Vegetable Oils Development (NOVOD) board was constituted on
(a) 8th March 1984
(b) 5th March 1985
(c) 8th March 1986
(d) 5th March 1987
34. Consider the following statements
1. Small Farmers Agri-business Consortium (SFAC) was registered by Department of Agriculture and Cooperation on 18th January, 1994.
2. SAFC is managed by the Board of Managing Consisting of 20 members and Chaired by the union minister of agriculture as its ex-officio president.
3. SAFC has established 18 state level SFACS by contributing corpus fund.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
35. The National Academy of Dance, Drama and Music named Sangeet Natak Akademi was the first of these entities to be established by a resolution of the Ministry of Education on 31st May 1952. Who was the then Minister of Education in India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Indira Gandhi
36. ‘Gharana’ and ‘Sampradaya’ is related to which field of life in india?
(a) Dance (b) Music
(c) Drama (d) Sports
37. This organization is the Indian National Academy of Letters meant to promote the cause of Indian literature through publication, translations, seminars, workshops, cultural exchange programmes and literary meets organized all over the country
(a) Sangeet Kala Academy
(b) Lalit Kala Academy
(c) Sahitya Academy
(d) National School of Drama
38. The Sahitya Academy was founded in the year
(a) March 1984 (b) March 1954
(c) March 1964 (d) March 1936
39.Which one is not the followship of Sahitya Academy?
(a) Sahitya Academy Honorary Fellowship
(b) Anand Fellowship
(c) Premchand Fellowship
(d) Prasad Fellowship
40. The national school of Drama (NSD), one of the foremost theatre institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India was set up by Sangeet Natak Academy in the year
(a) 1954 (b) 1955
(c) 1959 (d) 1962
41. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) is one of the premier institutions working in the field of linking education and culture. The CCRT was set up in
(a) May 1979 (b) May 1989
(c) May 1999 (d) May 2009
42. The National Mission for Manuscripts was launched by the Government in 2003. Which is the nodal agency of the National Mission for Manuscripts.
(a) Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts
(b) National Gallery of Modern Art
(c) National Museum
(d) Archaeological Survey of India
43.When was the National Museum set up
(a) 1960 (b) 1949
(c) 1956 (d) 1968
44. The Anthropological survey of India is a premier research organization under
(a) Ministry of Science & Technology
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Ministry of Culture
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
45.Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) National Archives of India – New Delhi
(b) National Library – Kolkata
(c) Lalit Kala Akademi – Kolkata
(d) National Museum – New Delhi
46. The National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), New Delhi was founded in
(a) 1954 (b) 1956
(c) 1960 (d) 1964
47. The National Sample Survey (NSS) was set up in 1950; when was this organization reorganized?
(a) 1965 (b) 1970
(c) 1977 (d) 1991
48.Where is the headquarter of survey Design and Research Division, which is one of the division of the National Sample Survey (NSS)?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Bhopal
49. In which year the first Economic Census came into existence?
(a) 1970 (b) 1977
(c) 1982 (d) 1990
50. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the founder member of the universal postal union (UPU) since 1876.
2. India is the member of Asia-pacific postal union (APPU) since 1964.
3. India exchanges mail with more than 217 countries by air and surface.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
51. Postal Life Insurance (PLI) was introduced in India in year
(a) 1884 (b) 1896
(c) 1936 (d) 1948
52. The Forest Conservation Division implements the forest (conservation) Act.
When was that Act enacted by the parliament of India?
(a) 25 October 1980 (b) 27 November 1992
(c) 16 September 1985
(d) 16 October 1987
53. Integrated Forest Protection Scheme (IFPS) was being implemented during the 10th five
year plan and is being continued during 11th plan. The planning commission has suggested to rename the scheme as :
(a) Intensification of Forest Management
(b) Strengthening Forest Management
(c) Conservation Forest Management
(d) Infrastructure Development.
54.What is the number of National Parks in India?
(a) 99 (b) 43
(c) 515 (d) 213
55.When the scheme ‘Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries’ has been modified as integrated Development Habitats.
(a) 2006 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2009
56.Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of Forest & Environment. When ‘WWI’ was established?
(a) 1980 (b) 1982
(c) 1990 (d) 1993
57. Zoos in India are regulated as per the provision of the wild life (protection) Act. When this act came in existence?
(a) 1969 (b) 1972
(c) 1980 (d) 1982
58.When was the centrally sponsored scheme ‘Project Tiger’ launched?
(a) 1972 (b) 1973
(c) 1975 (d) 1979
59.What is the number of tigers in India shown after the counting of tigers in 2011.
(a) 1411 (b) 1706
(c) 1905 (d) 1608
60. Number of Tiger Reservers in India is
(a) 38 (b) 49
(c) 53 (d) 113
61. India has a Memorandum of understanding with which country on controlling transboundary illegal trade in wild life and conservation?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan (d) China
62.When was the project Elephant launched?
(a) Feb. 1992 (b) Feb. 1990
(c) Feb. 1993 (d) Feb. 1995
63.Which statement/statements is/are true about project Elephant?
1. All India estimation of elephant is done every five years.
2. The total number of Elephant Reserve in country has become 27.
3. The project Elephant is being implemented in 13 states of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
64. In August 1980, where the GB Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment and Development (GBPIHED) was established?
(a) Almora (Uttrakhand)
(b) Shimla (Himachal Pradesh)
(c) Silchar (Assam)
(d) Sri Nagar (Uttrakahand)
65.Which one of these statements are not true about Forestry Research in India?
(a) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is an apex body in the national Forestry research system.
(b) This council promotes the solution based Forestry Research.
(c) The council enhances public confidence in the ability of forest managers and researches to successfully handle challenges to natural resource management.
(d) The council has only one research institute in New Delhi.
66. Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is the Research and development wing of the Department of which Ministry under government of India?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Environment
67. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is one of India’s Major Flagship Programes for universalisation of elementary education launched in
(a) 1998 (b) 2001
(c) 2007 (d) 2009
68.Which one of these are not a goal of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(a) Enrolment of all children in school.
(b) Retention of all children till the upper primary stage.
(c) Bridging of gender and social category gap in enrolment, retention and learning.
(d) Enrich the high class of Higher education.
69.What was the annual outlay for the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) in the year 2010-11?
(a) Rs. 15,000 crore (b) Rs. 20,000 crore
(c) Rs. 18,000 crore (d) Rs. 11,000 crore
70.Which one of these statements are not true about Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya Scheme?
(a) It provides the residential selting for upper primary school for girls.
(b) The scheme provides for a minimum reservation of 75% seats for girls from SC, ST and OBC.
(c) It provides 25% reservation to girls from families below the poverty line.
(d) There is the ratio of boys and girls student is 50:50 in Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya Scheme.
71. National programme of Nutritional support to primary education now knonw as MID DAY MEAL SCHEME was first introduced in which year in India?
(a) 1992 (b) 1995
(c) 1998 (d) 2001
72.When was the name of National Programme of Nutritional Support to primary education changed as ‘National Programme of Mid Day Meal in School’?
(a) 2004 (b) 2007
(c) 2008 (d) 2010
73. The National Ball Bhawan is an autonomous organization fully funded by the Ministry of Human Resources Development. When was the National Bal Bhawan established?
(a) 1956 (b) 1962
(c) 1986 (d) 1972
74. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art, creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing?
(a) Bal Shree Scheme
(b) Bal Bodh
(c) Bal Sadan
(d) Bal Shiksha
75.When the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) was established?
(a) 17 August 1995 (b) 16 September 1996
(c) 14 January 1986 (d) 15 September 1996
76. The Right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years. This right inserted age group of 6 to 14 years. This right inserted to which article of the constitution?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 14
77. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) revised its existing regulations and norms in the year
(a) 1998 (b) 2002
(c) 2005 (d) 2009
78.When was the National population education project was launched?
(a) April 1976 (b) April 1980
(c) April 1992 (d) April 2002
79.Match the Following
    List I         List II
    A. NCERT         1. 1995
    B. NIOS         2. 1980
    C. NPEP         3. 1961
    D. NCTE         4. 1979
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
80.    Which Article of the constitution states that “The state shall promote, with special care the education and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people and in particular of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of social exploitation”?
(a) Article 46 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 14
81. IGNOU has established a network of open and Distance Learning institutes and centres in the region. At present, what is the number of regional centres of IGNOU?
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
82. The commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology prepares and publishes definition dictionaries and Terminology in various discipline in Hindi and in other languages. Where is the Headquarter of The Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata (d) Bhopal
83. The University Grant Commission (UGC) is a statutory organization for coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education. When the UGC was established?
(a) 1953 (b) 1956
(c) 1960 (d) 1962
84.Which statement is not true?
(a) India is a member of World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) since 1976.
(b) World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a special agency of the United Nationls which deals with copy right and other intellectual property rights.
(c) National Book Trust was established in 1959.
(d) NBT organizes the Work Bank Fair in New Delhi every year.
85. The installed power generation capacity in the country in the year 2010 is
(a) 1, 63, 669.8 MW (b) 1400 MW
(c) 16,429.4 MW (d) 72,274.3 MW
86. The National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd. A Navratna Company of the Government of India.When the NTPC was incorporated?
(a) 1972 (b) 1975 (c) 1985 (d) 1983
87. ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidytikaran Joyana’ For Rural Electricity infrastructure and household electrification was launched in
(a) 2004 (b) 2005
(c) 2007 (d) 2009
88. Consider the Following Statements
1. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) was incorporated in 1969
2. REC is a public financial institution, which is responsible to financing rural electrification schemes.
3. REC is the Nodal agency for implementation of ‘Rajeev Gandhi Grameen Vidhutikaran Yojana’.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) only 3 (d) 2 and 3
89.Where is the Corporate Centre of National Power Training Institute (NPTI) situated?
(a) Faridabad
(b) Ghaziabad
(c) Mathura (d) Nagpur
90. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was set up in
(a) 2001 (b) 2002
(c) 2003 (d) 2005
91. India is a member of International Energy Forum (IEF). Where is the permanent secretariat of IEF situated?
(a) Tehran (b) Riyadh
(c) New Delhi (d) London
92.When the Government of India was approved the New Exploration Licencing Policy (NELP)?
(a) 1995 (b) 1997
(c) 1999 (d) 2001
93.Which one of these, not a public sector petroleum company?
(a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(b) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
(c) Essar Oil Limited
(d) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
94. Pitambar Pane National Environment Fellowship is given every year to encourage and recognize excellence in any branch of research related to environmental Science. In which year this fellowship instituted?
(a) 1978 (b) 1977
(c) 1972 (d) 1982
95. ‘Medini Puraskar’ is given to encourage writing of original books in Hindi on which subject?
(a) Environment (b) Rural problems
(c) Petrolism (d) Education
96. World Environment Day celebrated on
(a) 5 June (b) 5 July
(c) 5 August (d) 5 October.
97. Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award was instated in the year
(a) 1988 (b) 1989
(c) 1990 (d) 1991
98. Senior citizen of 65 years of age or above are eligible for old age pension under NOAPS, but not getting pension covered under which scheme?
(a) Annapurna Scheme
(b) Nutrition programme
(c) Rural Foodgrain Scheme
(d) Old age meal programme
99. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) a scheme of Ministry of labour was launched on
(a) 2 Oct 2007 (b) 1 Oct 2007
(c) 2 Oct 2008 (d) 1 Oct 2008
100.Which country is not included in India’s ‘Look East Policy”?
(a) Japan (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Maldives
101. The Government of India launched the credit Gurantee Fund Scheme for Micro and small enterprises tomake available credit to Micro
    and small enterprises. When this scheme was launched?
(a) August 1998 (b) August 2000
(c) August 2002 (d) August 2005
102.Where is the National Institute of Miners health (NIMH) situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Nagpur
(c) Bhopal (d) Patna
103. The Attorney General of India appointed by
(a) The president
(b) The GOM
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Law Minister
104.Match the following
    List I         List II
    a. ITBF         1. 1992
    b. BSF         2. 1949
    c. CRPF         3. 1965
    d. RAF         4. 1962
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
105. The Employee’s Pension scheme was first came into effect from
(a) 16 November 1990(b) 16 November 1995
(c) 16 November 2003(d) 16 November 2005
106. The National Test House is a government laboratory of national importance in the field of testing and evaluation of material and products of all engineering branches except food. Where is the headquarter of the National Test House?
(a) New Delhi (b) Kolkat
(c) Bhopal (d) Patna
107. The NTH has its six regional laboratories in India. In which city of India NTH has no regional laboratory?
(a) Mumbai (b) Ghaziabad
(c) Jaipur (d) Bhopal
108.Match the Following
    List I             List II
    (Institutes)             (Headquarters)
A. Indian Institute     1. Hapur (UP)
of Legal Metrology
B. National Test         2. Kundi
House (Haryana)
C. National Institute     3. Ranchi of Food
Technology (Jharkhand)
D. Indian Grain         4. Kolkata (WB)
storage Management & Research Institute
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
109. An integrated Food Law, Food Safety and standards Act was notified on
(a) 24 August 2005 (b) 24 August 2006
(c) 24 August 2007 (d) 24 August 2007
110. In which year the National Health Policy was regular to achieving an acceptable standard of Health-for the general population of the country?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002
(c) 2005 (d) 2007
111. The National Rural Health Mission was launched by the Prime Minister of provide accessible, affordable and accountable quality health services to the poorest households in the remotest rural regions. When this mission was launched
(a) 12 April, 2005 (b) 12 April, 2007
(c) 12 April, 2008 (d) 12 April, 2009.
112. National programmed for control of Blindness (NPCB) was launched in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) 1998 (d) 2002
113. No persons shall engage in smoking in a public place. This rule have been notified and came in effect on
(a) 2 October 2006
(b) 2 October 2007
(c) 2 October 2008
(d) 2 October 2009
114. Rashtriya Aragya Nidhi was set up in which year to provide financial assistance to patients?
(a) 1996 (b) 1997
(c) 1998 (d) 1999
115. The National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS) was established in 1961 as a nonofficial body of Bio-medical Scientists. Where is the National Academy of Medical Science situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Bhopal (d) Ahmedabad
116. Consider the following statements
1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) launched on 3rd December 2005.
2. Basic Services to the urban poor provided in JNNURM.
3. The duration of Mission is for 7 years beginning from the year 2005-06 till 2011-12.
Which statement/statements is/are true?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) only 1
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3.
117.When a dedicated Indian sports channel of Doordarshan was launched?
(a) 18th March 1999 (b) 25th April 1999
(c) 16th May 1998 (d) 16th May 1998
118. Doordarshan opened its window to the world by launching its international channel on
(a) 14th March 1995 (b) 16th March 1996
(c) 16th March 1997 (d) 14th March 1998
119.Match the following
    List I             List II
    A. DD Bharti     1. 1999
    B. D D Urdu     2. 1995
    C. D D India     3. 2006
    D. D D Sports     4. 2002
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
120. India’s largest news agency press Trust of India began functioning on
(a) 1 February 1949 (b) 1 February 195
(c) 1 July 1949 (d) 1 July 1956
121.Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Press Trust of India – 1949
(b) United News of India – 1961
(c) Press council of India – 1978
(d) NAM News Network – 2005
122. Consider the following statements.
1. The Central Board of Film Certification set up under the cinematograph Act 1952.
2. It consists of a Chairperson and twenty five other non-official members.
3. The Board has its headquarts at Mumbay and nine regional offices.
Which statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
123. In which city of India there is no regional office of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)?
(a) Bangalore (b) Cuttack
(c) Guwahati (d) Jaipur
124. The National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC) was formed by the Government of India with the primary objective of planning and promoting an organized, efficient integrated development of Indian Film Industry. When was the NFDC was incorporated?
(a) 1975 (b) 1979
(c) 1982 (d) 1985
125. The Film Finance Corporation was set up in the year 1964. When was this corporation menged within the National Film Development Corporation Limited (NFDC)?
(a) 1980 (b) 1982
(c) 1985 (d) 1989
126.Which statement is not correct?
(a) The film institute of India was setup by the Government of India in 1960 under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
(b) Films and Television Institute of India provides the latest education and technological experience in the art and technique of film making and television production.
(c) Children’s Film Society was established in 1965 to provide value based entertainment to children.
(d) The Directorate of Film Festivals was up under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in 1973.
127.Match the Following
    List I                 List II
A. First Five Year Plan         1. 1980-85
B. Third Five Year Plan         2. 1951-56
C. Fourth Five Year         3. 1961-1966
D. Sixth Five Year Plan         4. 1969-74
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
128.What was the achieved growth rate of GDP in Ninth Five Year Plan?
(a) 8.0% (b) 7.0%
(c) 7.5% (d) 8.5%
129. Three Annual Plans formulated between which years?
(a) 1964-67 (b) 1966-69
(c) 1980-83 (d) 1985-88
130. In which Five Year Plan, the National Rural Health Mission was launched?
(a) Sixth (b) Ninth
(c) Tenth (d) Eleventh
131. According to which Article of the constitution, the Gram Sabha is constituted in Panchayati Raj?
(a) Article 19A (b) Article 234
(c) Article 243 A (d) Article 335 A
132.Which statement is not true about the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(a) The Act came into Force on Feb. 2, 2006.
(b) It was implemented in 130 districts is phase two 2007-08.
(c) The scheme was extended to the remaining 274 districts of India.
(d) In First phase it was introduced in 150 districts.
133. In which year, the Ministry of Rural areas and Employment was renamed as Ministry of Rural Development?
(a) 1998 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 2005

ANSWERS:

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (b)