Saturday, March 28, 2015

General Science Practice Questions

1. Which of the following vitamins is helpful for coagulation of blood  ?
(A) C (B) D (C) E (D) K
Ans : (D)

2. For purifying drinking water, alum is used–
(A) for coagulation of mud particles (B) to kill bacteria
(C) to remove salts (D) to remove gases
Ans : (A)

3. A weather balloon is not fully inflated on the ground because– 
(A) if the balloon is fully inflated, it may not remain stable in a storm
(B) the air inside the balloon expands as it rises and may burst
(C) it cannot withstand the outside pressure if fully inflated
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. Vitamin B12 is most useful for combating–
(A) anaemia (B) goitre
(C) night blindness (D) rickets
Ans : (A)

5. A transistor is most likely to be found in a–
(A) fuse (B) fluorescent lamp
(C) hearing aid (D) wrist watch
Ans : (C)

6. A person born with the inner ear missing–
(A) would not have the Eustachian tube
(B) would never be able to hear sound 
(C) would be able to hear only with an electronic hearing aid 
(D) could only hear a loud explosion
Ans : (B)
    
7. The possibility of hereditary variation is greatest when– 
(A) self-fertilisation occurs, as in some plants
(B) an abundant amount of food is provided for the egg
(C) organisms reproduce sexually
(D) organisms reproduce asexually
Ans : (C)

8. Steel is more elastic then rubber because– 
(A) its density is high (B) it is a metal
(C) ratio of stress to strain is more (D) ratio of stress to strain is less 
Ans : (C)

9. The chief purpose if crop rotation is to check the loss of topsoil–
(A) by water erosion (B) by wind erosion
(C) by weathering (D) pf its mineral content
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following acts as a resistance against disease in the body ?
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Red corpuscles
(C) Vitamins (D) White corpuscles
Ans : (D)

11. What is function of a dynamo ?
(A) To convert heat energy into light energy
(B) To convert light energy into heat energy
(C) To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy 
(D) To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
Ans : (C)

12. The chief constituent of Gobar Gas is–
(A) ethane (B) methane
(C) hydrogen (D) carbon dioxide
Ans : (B)

13. Who is credited with the development of polio vaccine ?
(A) Linus Pauling
(B) Jonas Salk
(C) Melvin Calvin
(D) Selman Waksman
Ans : (B)

14. Which one of the following statements regarding sound is true ?
(A) It travels at its greatest speed in vacuum.
(B) It produces transverse vibrations in the medium in which it travels.
(C) Its source is always a vibrating material.
(D) It cannot travel through liquids.
Ans : (C)

15. The clear sky looks blue because of–
(A) reflection of light (B) refraction of light
(C) diffraction of light (D) dispersion of light
Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following in the human body is popularly called the ‘Adam’s Apple’?
(A) Adrenal (B) Liver
(C) Thyroid (D) Thymus
Ans : (C)

17. Which one of the following substances is obtained by the fractionation of human blood ?
(A) Antivenom serum (B) Gamma globulin
(C) Polio vaccine (D) Diphtheria antitoxin
Ans : (B)

18. Of the blood groups A, B, AB and O, which one is transfused into a person whose blood group is A ?
(A)  Group A only (B)  Group B only
(C)  Group A and O (D)  Group AB only
Ans : (C)

19. The three abundant elements in the earth’s crust are aluminium, oxygen and silicon. The correct order of their abundance is– 
(A) oxygen, aluminium, silicon (B) aluminium, silicon, oxygen
(C) oxygen, silicon, aluminium (D) silicon, oxygen, aluminium
Ans : (D)

20. Penicillin is widely used as–
(A) an antiseptic (B) a disinfectant
(C) an antibiotic (D) an insecticide
Ans : (C)
 

General Science Practice Questions

1. An eye defect which usually results from an unequal curvature of the cornea is–
(A) nearsightedness (B) astigmatism
(C) colour blindness (D) night blindness
Ans : (B)

2. The velocity of sound in air (under normal conditions) is–
(A) 30 m / sec (B) 320 m / sec
(C) 332 m / sec (D) 3,320 m / sec
Ans : (C)

3. A photo-electric cell converts–
(A) sound energy into electrical energy (B) light energy into electrical energy
(C) an electrical signal into sound waves (D) electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following sounds cannot be heard by human ear?
(A) 300 vibrations / sec (B) 1,000 vibrations / sec
(C) 10,000 vibrations / sec (D) 30,000 vibrations / sec
Ans : (D)

5. Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because–
(A) the infra-red light kills bacteria in the body     
(B) resistance power increases
(C) the pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan
(D) the ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D
Ans : (D)

6. Small amounts of iodine are necessary in our diet to– 
(A) prevent pellagra
(B) compensate for underactivity of the thyroid gland
(C) stimulate clotting of blood
(D) stimulate pituitary gland
Ans : (B)

7. On a sudden cardiac arrest, which of the following is advised as a first step to revive the functioning of human heart ?
(A) Mouth to mouth resuscitation (B) Giving external cardiac massage
(C) Sprinkling water on the face (D) Giving cool water to drink
Ans : (A)

8. A triode differs from a diode in the way that– 
(A) it can amplify a signal (B) it has vacuum inside
(C) it has a heated cathode (D) its current is caused by the photoelectric effect
Ans : (A)

9. Radioactive substances can be produces readily in–
(A) an electron gun (B) an atomic pile
(C) a transistor (D) a Wilson cloud chamber
Ans : (B)

10. The method of estimating the age of the crust of the earth, which is now believed to be the most accurate, makes use of the rate of–
(A) accumulation of sedimentary beds  (B) accumulation of salt in the ocean
(C) atomic disintegration (radio-activity) (D) loss of heat by the earth
Ans : (C)

11. When a given amount of air is cooled–
(A) the amount of moisture it can hold decreases (B) its absolute humidity decreases 
(C) its relative humidity remains constant  (D) its absolute humidity increases
Ans : (A)

12. With the present-day advancement in medical techniques, transplants are possible in all of the following except–
(A) artery (B) bone
(C) cornea (D) kidney
Ans : (B)

13. The reaction which converts sugar solution into alcohol is a example of–
(A) saponification (B) hydrogenation
(C) fermentation (D) hydrolysis
Ans : (C)

14. The Rh factor refers to– 
(A) a protein substance found in the blood of some people
(B) a hormone carried by the blood
(C) the ratio of red corpuscles to white corpuscles in the blood
(D) a process that speeds up the clotting of blood
Ans : (A)

15. The greatest value of bees to mankind is in–
(A) supplying of food for birds
(B) insuring pollination of certain crop plants
(C) storing honey for man’s use
(D) furnishing beeswax needed in certain specialised industries 
Ans : (B)

16. All of the following are examples of chemical changes except the–
(A) magnetising of iron (B) rusting of iron
(C) digestion of food (D) souring of milk
Ans : (A)

17. Cancer is a disease which–
(A) cannot be spread by those who have it
(B) is found only in human beings
(C) develops only in certain organs of the body
(D) is passed from generation to generation
Ans : (A)

18. The moon has no atmosphere because–
(A) no atmosphere has ever formed there 
(B) the rocky surface completely absorbed the gases 
(C) due to the low temperature, gases have condensed
(D) its gravitational pull is not strong enough to hold an atmosphere 
 Ans : (D)

19. When a moving bus stops suddenly, the passengers are pushed forward because of the–
(A) friction between the earth and the bus
(B) friction between the passengers and the earth 
(C) inertia of the passengers
(D) inertia of the bus
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following is not an attribute of bacterium ?
(A) Ability to arise from non-living matter (B) Growth
(C) Reproduction (D) Respiration
Ans : (A)
 

Tuesday, March 24, 2015

62nd National Film Awards Winners 2015

The 62nd National Film Awards were announced in a press conference in New Delhi on 24 March, 2015 . The conference was addressed by Jury Chairpersons Shri Bharathiraja and Shri Kamal Swaroop.

 List of winners:

• Best Feature Film: Court (Marathi, Hindi, Gujarati and English)
• Best Popular Film for Providing Wholesome Entertainment: Mary Kom
• Indira Gandhi Award for Best Debut Film of a Director: Asha for Jaoar Majhe
• Special Jury Award: Khwada (Marathi)
• Best Direction: Srijit Mukherji for Chotushkone (Bengali)
• Best Actress: Kangana Ranaut for Queen
• Best Actor: Vijay for Nanu Avanalla Avalu (Kannada)
• Best Supporting Actor: Bobby Simhaa for Jigarthanda (Tamil)
• Best Supporting Actress: Baljinder Kaur for Pagdi The Honour (Haryanavi)
• Best Child Actor: Kaakkaa Muttai(Tamil)
• Best Female Playback Singer: Uttara Unnikrishanan for Azhagu, Saivam (Tamil)
• Best Costume Designer: Haider (Hindi) Dolly Ahluwalia
• Best Make-up Artist: Nangaraju and Raju for Nanu Avanalla Avalu (Kannada)
• Best Cinematography: Chotushkone (Bengali)
• Best Editing: Vivek Harshan for Jigarthanda (Tamil)
• Best Production Design: Aparna Raina for Nachom - IA Kumpasar (Konkani)
• Best Screenplay Writer (Original): Srijit Mukherji for Chotushkone (Bengali)
• Best Screenplay Writer (Adapted): Joshy Mangalath for Ottal (Malayalam)
• Best Dialogues: Vishal Bhardwaj for Haider
• Best Lyrics: NA. Muthukumar for Azhagu, Saivam (Tamil)
• Best Music Direction Songs: Haider
• Best Music Direction Background Score: Nineteen Eighty Three (Malayalam)
• Best Audiography - Location Sound Recordist: Mahaveer Sabbanwal for Khwada (Marathi)
• Best Audiography - Sound Designer: Anish John for Asha Jaoar Majhe (Bengali)
• Best Audiography - Re-recordist of the final mixed track: Anirban Sengupta and Dipankar Chaki for Nirbashito (Bengali)
• Best Choreography: Sudesh Bismil, Haider
• Best Assamese Film: Othello
• Best Bengali Film: Nirbashito
• Best Hindi Film: Queen
• Best Rabha Film: Orong
• Best Haryanvi Film: Pagdi The Honour
• Best Punjabi Film: Punjab 1984
• Best Tamil Film: Kuttram Kadithal
• Best Telugu Film: Chandamama Kathalu
• Best Malayalam Film: Ain
• Best Marathi Film: Killa
• Best Odiya Film: Aadim Vichar
• Best Kannada Film: Harivu
• Best Konkani Film: Nachom - IA Kumpasar
• Special Mention: Killa (Marathi), Bhootnath Returns (Hindi), Ain (Malayalam), Nachom - IA Kumpasar (Konkani)
• Best Film on Environment Consevation/Preservation: Ottaal (Malayalam)
• Best Educational Film: Komal and Behind the Glass Wall
• Best Exploration/ Adventure Film: Life Force - India's Western Ghats
• Best Investigative Film: Phum Shang 
• Best Animation Film: Sound of Joy
• Best Short Fiction Film: Mitraa
• Best Film on Social Issues: Chotoder Chobi
• Best Children's Film: Kaakkaa Muttai (Tamil) and Elizabeth Ekadashi (Marathi)
• Best Film Critic: Tanul Thakur
• Best Book on Cinema: Silent Cinema: (1895-1930)
 

100 General Knowledge Questions for Competitive Exams

Indian Polity and Constitution
1. As per the Preamble to the Constitution of India, the objectives of the Constitution are —Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
2. The fundamental right which says that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds is given in —Article 28 of the Constitution of India
3. The Inter-State Council was constituted by the President in 1990 (as provided in Article 263 of the Constitution) on the recommendation of —The Sarkaria Commission 
4. The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by Parliament (both houses) —Within one month
5. In 1963, the state which was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam was —Nagaland
6. The Constituent Assembly constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan appointed —22 Committees to deal with different tasks of Constitutionmaking 
7. Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces ? —Article 33
8. The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from —The English Common Law
9. Which schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes ? —Fifth Schedule
10. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Governor of a state to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases ? —Article 161

Indian National Movement
11. Who said “For next fifty years let Mother India be the only god to be worshipped by Indians” ? —Swami Vivekanand
12. Permanent Settlement was a feature of —Zamindari System
13. During India’s freedom struggle, the reason which led to the first ‘All India Hartal’ was —Arrival of Simon Commission in 1928
14. Which freedom fighter is known as Lokahitavadi ? —G. H. Deshmukh
15. Which movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi on March 12, 1930 ? —Civil Disobedience Movement
16. On 26 September 1932, Poona Pact was signed between —Gandhiji and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
17. In 1918, who founded Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association ? —Mahatma Gandhi
18. Sarojini Naidu was elected the President of Indian National Congress in 1925 at —its Kanpur Session
19. The Muslim League demanded a separate home land for Indian Muslims for the first time at —its Lahore session in 1940
20. Who is considered to be the father of the idea of Pakistan ? —Mohammad Iqbal

History and Culture of India
21. The book authored by Zia-Uddin Barni is —Tarikh-e-Firozshahi
22. The two laws—Vyavahar-Samta and Dand-Samta were introduced by —Emperor Ashoka
23. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English forces under —Lord Wellesly
24. When Babur invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagar empire in South India ? —Krishna Deva Raya
25. The Ryatwari Settlement was primarily introduced by the British Government in —Madras and Bombay
26. Akbarnamah and Ain-e-Akbari have been written by —Abul Fazal
27. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was set up in 1784 in Calcutta by —Sir William Jones
28. Which Sufi Order laid great stress on practicing mystic music ? —Chisti Order
29. The Rajatarangini of Kalhana was composed in —The twelfth century
30. Dharmakaya, Nirmanakaya and Sambhogakaya are —Buddhist Concepts

Economic Affairs of India
31. In which year was Prevention of Food Adulteration Act first enacted ? —In the year 1959
32. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna was started in the year —1999
33. The largest item of public expenditure in the Union budgets in recent years is —Interest Payments
34. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary sector in the GDP —Increases
35. Growth with Equity and Distributive Justice was determined as the main target of —The Ninth Five Year Plan
36. To provide accessible affordable and accountable quality health services to the poorest households in the remotest regions, the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on —April 12, 2005
37. National Food for Work Programme aimed at intensifying the generation of supplementary wage employment was launched on —November 14, 2004
38. Izzat scheme has been launched by —Ministry of Railways
39. As per the Global Competitiveness Report 2009-10 released by World Economic Forum, out of the list of 134 nations, India ranks —49
40. The World Bank has recently approved to India —4•3 billion dollar loan 

Geography (India and the World)

41. Which current is responsible for increasing the temperature of Western Europe ? —North Equatorial Current
42. India’s largest petrochemical factory is situated in the state of —Gujarat
43. Equinox is a state in which the duration of day and night is equal. It falls on —21st March and 23rd September 
44. Zimbabwe was earlier known as —Southern Rhodesia
45. The main centres of ship building industry in Japan are —Yokohama and Kobe
46. The Hwang ho river drains into —Yellow Sea
47. The World Food Day is celebrated on —October 16
48. India’s first National Marine Park is in —The Gulf of Mannar
49. The Industrial region of India which has the predominance of metal industries is —Chhotanagpur Region
50. The least densely populated Union Territory of India as per 2001 census is —Andman and Nicobar Islands

Science and Technology
51. The cause of acid rain in atmosphere is —Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide
52. The function of DNA in the body is —To help in synthesis of proteins
53. The plant dye ‘Henna’ imparts orange-red colour to skin and hairs due to its reaction with —Proteins and Amino Acids
54. Which of the vitamins has the cobalt ? —Vitamin B12
55. Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerisation of —Ethylene
56. The bacterium responsible for causing plague is —Yersinia Pestis
57. Centre for cellular and Molecular Biology is located at —Hyderabad
58. The Blood Pressure in human body is —Equal to the atmospheric Pressure
59. Another name for computer programme is —Computer Software
60. Brass is formed by —Zinc and Copper

Agriculture
61. The Cereals in India occupies —54% of total cropped area
62. India produces —11% cereals of the World 
63. The three varieties of coffee are —Arabica, robusta and liberica
64. Among the tea exporting countries of the world, India —Ranks third after Sri Lanka and China
65. Black soil is also known as —Regur Soil or Black Cotton Soil
66. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum and sandalwood are the main species of —The moist deciduous forests in India
67. Taxes on agriculture income is given in —State List in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India
68. In the content of alternative source of energy, ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from —Sugarcane
69. What causes ‘Black heart’ in potato ? —Oxygen deficiency
70. Central Research Institute for Dry Land Agriculture is located in —Hyderabad

Sports and Games
71. The 63rd edition of the National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy) was won by —Goa
72. The runner-up (country) in the Women’s World Twenty-20 in 2009 was —New Zealand
73. What is the distance of running in a marathon race ? —26 miles 385 yards
74. ‘Queensberry Rules’ is the name given to the rules in —Boxing
75. The winners of Mixed Doubles Title of Wimbledon Championship 2009 were —Mark Knowles (Bahamas) Anna Lena Groenfeld (Germany)
76. The World Cup of Football will be held in 2018 in —Russia
77. India’s Youngest International Master presently is —Sahaj Grover
78. AIFF Footballer of the Year is —Subrata Paul
79. The International Olympic Committee President is —Jaques Rogge
80. The runner up in recently held Champions Trophy Tournament (Cricket) is —New Zealand

Miscellany
81. In India, the largest number of mines of metallic minerals are found in —Jharkhand
82. The elements of Human Development Index are —Life Expectancy at Birth, Adult Literacy Rate and Number of People Below Poverty Line
83. The current President of the World Bank is —Robert Zoellick
84. The causative organism of malignant malaria in human being is —Plasmodium malarie
85. Lignite is a type of —Coal
86. The iron and steel plants of Rourkela (established in collaboration with Germany) and Durgapur (established in collaboration with Britain) were conceived under the —Second Five Year Plan
87. ‘Swayamsidha’ is a scheme launched by Government of India to help —Women only
88. Vachaspati Puraskars are given by —Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan Foundation
89. The largest producer of raw wool in India —Jammu and Kashmir
90. Agriculture involving both crops and livestock is called —Mixed Farming
91. Hunting and fishing is the main occupation of the people living in —Polar Regions
92. Two largest producers of iron ore in India are —Jharkhand and Odisha
93. In March 2009, Deodhar Trophy was bagged by —West Zone
94. Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is laid down in —Article 19 (f)
95. The three states in India in the production of total foodgrains in the descending order are —Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
96. The isotope of uranium used in atomic reactors is —U235
97. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to —Surface Tension
98. The density of a gas is maximum at —Low Temperature and High Pressure
99. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of —Cripps Mission (1942)
100. Lepcha is an important tribe of —Dhauladhar Range
 

Sunday, March 22, 2015

Sunday, March 8, 2015

Indian Economy Practice Questions for All Competitive Exams

1.    Which of the following factor forms the invisible account of the Balance of Payments of a country?
(a)    International trade in services.
(b)    Income associated with non resident assets and liabilities.
(c)    Remittance of worker income.
(d)    All the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Balance of payment broadly comprises of current and capital accounts. Current account records export and import of goods (visible items),   export and import of services (invisible items) and unilateral transfers from one country to another.
2.    Which of the following is part of capital account of a country?
(a)    Export and import of goods.
(b)    Export and import of services.
(c)    Unilateral transfers from one country to another.
(d)    NRI deposits.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Capital account of a country includes foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, external commercial borrowings, NRI deposits among others.
3.    What is Greenfield investment?
(a)    A form of foreign direct investment where a parent company starts a new venture in a foreign country by constructing new operational facilities.
(b)    A form of foreign direct investment where a company purchases or leases existing production facilities to launch a new production activity.
(c)    Investment by non resident Indians.
(d)    Investment in shares and debts.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A form of foreign direct investment where a parent company starts a new venture in a foreign country by constructing new operational facilities is called Greenfield Investment. A form of foreign direct investment where a company purchases or leases an existing production facility to launch a new production activity is called Brownfield Investment.

4.    Which of the following is not a feature of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
(a)    Providing universal access to banking facilities.
(b)    Providing Basic Banking Accounts with overdraft facility of Rs.5000 after six months and RuPay Debit card with inbuilt accident insurance cover of Rs. 1 lakh and RuPay Kisan Card
(c)      Financial Literacy Programme
(d)    Issuance of credit cards.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The PMJDY has been conceived as a national mission on financial inclusion with the objective of covering all households in the country with banking facilities and having a bank account for each household. Financial inclusion or inclusive financing is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low-income segments of society.
Phase I (15th August ,2014-14th August,2015)-
 
•    Universal access to banking facilities
•    Providing Basic Banking Accounts with overdraft facility of Rs.5000 after six months and RuPay Debit card with inbuilt accident insurance cover of Rs. 1 lakh and RuPay Kisan Card.
•    Financial Literacy Programme
Phase II (15th August 2015-15th August,2018)-
•    Creation of Credit  Guarantee Fund   for coverage of defaults in overdraft  A/Cs   
•    Micro Insurance     
•    Unorganized sector Pension schemes like  Swavlamban

5.    Which of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India?
(a)    Regulation of credit.
(b)    Regulation of foreign exchange.
(c)    Management of fiscal deficit.
(d)    Banker to the government and commercial banks.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Set up in 1935, RBI’s main functions include regulation of credit, regulation of foreign exchange, banker to the government and commercial banks, issue of notes and coins and lender of last resort.

6.    Which of the following is a qualitative credit control tool used by RBI?
(a)    Moral suasion.
(b)    Open market operations.
(c)    Repo rate.
(d)    Cash reserve requirement.
 
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Moral suasion is application of pressure but not force to get members to adhere to a policy or advice that RBI gives. Other qualitative credit control tool includes margin requirements, consumer credit regulations, RBI guidelines, rationing of credit.

7.    Consider the following statements.
1.    Bharat Bill payment System is a proposed centralized bill payments infrastructure which will enable customers to pay a variety of bills anytime anywhere.
2.    It has been proposed by RBI.
3.    The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has been designated as the authorized Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)    1 and 2.
(b)    1 and3.
(c)    2 and 3.
(d)    1, 2 and 3.

Answer: (d)

Explanation:
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposes to set up anytime anywhere bill payment system under Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS). The BBPS is designed to function as a tiered structure for operating the bill payment system in the country with a single brand image providing convenience of ‘anytime anywhere’ bill payment to customers. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has been designated as the authorized Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) to set the standards for BBPS processes which need to be adhered to by all authorized operating units under the system.

8.    Consider the following statements about ‘Swachh Bharat Kosh’.
1. Funds will be used for improving cleanliness levels in rural and urban areas, including in schools.
2. It will be under the Ministry of Tourism.
3. Its functioning will be monitored on quarterly basis by the Finance Minister and by the Prime Minister from time-to-time.
4. Projects under it will be implemented and carried out by the existing institutions at the state, district, and sub district level and no new institutions would be created.
  
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4.
(b)    1, 2 and 3.
(c)    1, 3 and 4.
(d)    2, 3 and 4.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:  Government recently launched a fund Swachh Bharat kosh that will be used be used for improving cleanliness levels in rural and urban areas, including in schools. As a top priority, funds will be used to bring out innovative projects and girl toilets. It will be under the Ministry of Finance and will be managed by a Governing Council headed by Expenditure Secretary. Its functioning will be monitored on quarterly basis by the Finance Minister and by the Prime Minister from time-to-time. Projects under it will be implemented and carried out by the existing institutions at the state, district, and sub district level and no new institutions would be created. These funds will finance activities such as construction of new toilets as well as repair and renovation of dysfunctional toilets in rural areas, urban areas, elementary, secondary and senior secondary government schools, aanganwaadis. It will be also used for constructing water lines to the toilets, training and skill development to maintain hygiene in the toilets as well as other activities to improve sanitation.

9.    What is the full form of NITI Aayog?
(a)    National Institute to Transform India.
(b)    National Institute for Transforming India.
(c)    National Institution to Transform India.
(d)    National Institution for Transforming India.
Answer: (d)
10.    Swabhiman is a:
(a)    Financial inclusion initiative.
(b)    Pension initiative for BPL families.
(c)    Insurance policy for women.
(d)    Rural infrastructure project.
Answer:  (a)
Explanation:  Swabhiman aims at providing branchless banking through the services of banking correspondents (Bank Sathi).
11.  According to Suresh Tendulkar Report, What percentage of population was under the poverty Line in 2004-05?
A.36 %
B.37.2 %
C.40.2%
D.33 %
Answer: B
12.  Which of following statement is true about the Primary deficit?
A.    It is difference between Revenue receipts and Revenue Expenditure
B.    It is difference between capital receipts and Interest Payment    
C.    It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
D.    It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
Answer: C
13.  Who introduced Zamindari system in India?
A. Lord Carnwallis 
B. Lord Wlliam Bentinck
C. Lord Dalhousie 
D. Lord Canning
Answer:  A
14.  Base Effect remains in news, which of following statement is true about Base Effect:
A. It is Change in numbers of items for which price quotations are taken
B. It measures Impact of fuel items on inflation 
C. Impact of the rise in price level in the previous year over the rise in price level in the current year
D. Problem due to miscalculation
Answer: C
15.  What percent branches are to be established in unbanked areas under the provision of  new Banking licensing schemes
A.20%
B.40%
C.22%
D.25%
Answer: D
16.  What does the tax haven mean?
A. Important source of tax revenue for government 
B. Countries or states which impose no tax or very low tax that attract wealth from all over the world. 
C. Rich class of society that pays the tax
D. Particular section of society that does not pay the tax
Answer: B
17. Our first five year plan primary focused on
A. Agricultural Sector
B. Manufacturing Sector
C. Defense up gradation 
D. Service sector
Answer: A
18.  Which of following statement is true about charged expenditure?
A. Expenditure which requires voting of parliament 
B. Expenditure which does not require voting of parliament 
C. Expenditure which is incurred on productive activities 
D. Expenditure which is incurred on social welfare schemes
Answer: B
19.  Which sector constitutes the maximum share in GDP of India
A. Primary Sector
B. Secondary Sector
C. Tertiary Sector
D. None of above
Answer: C
20. Who operates the monetary policy in India?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C. Security and Exchange Board of India
D. All of above
Answer: B
21.Which of following statement is true about the Economic Growth 
a. It refers to increase in Gross Domestic Product ( GDP)
b. It refers to the long and sustained rise in real  Gross Domestic Product  (GDP) 
c. It is characterized by fall in unemployment rate
d. Rise in GDP on monetary term
Answer:  b  
Explanation : Economic growth implies change or an increase in the real output of country. Such changes should not be momentarily. Such growth should be maintained for certain period of time. Increase in GDP owing to increase in prices cannot be termed as Economic Growth.  
22.Market Based economy means
a. All economic decision are taken based on the demand and supply forces
b. Some economic decision are taken by government and other are left to market forces
c. Government has full control over the private sector
d. Economic decisions are taken after keeping in view the social welfare 
Answer:  a 
Explanation :Market based economy refers to the economic system where all economic decisions are taken based on the demand and supply conditions prevailing in the market. Government has minimal interference in economic activities. Private players are free to produce the goods and services based on the demand and supply signals in the market.
23.Quaternary  sector implies 
a. Activities related to mining and quarrying 
b. Activities related  to manufacturing 
c. Fishing activities 
d. Research and developmental  activities
Answer: d
Explanation :Quaternary sector is characterized by the intellectual persons or individuals or group of individual. It includes the research and development activities. Mining and quarrying and fishing are concerned with primary sector activities 
24.Sustainable Development implies 
a. Sustained rise in real GDP
b. Long lasting development without negatively impacting the environment 
c. Full exploitation of natural resources 
d. Reduction in unemployment and poverty 
Answer: b
Explanation :Brundtland commission in Our Common Future, also known as the Brundtland Report defined sustainable development:
"Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
25.  Mixed Economy Implies
a. Absence of Public Sector
b. Absence of private sector
c. Co-existence of public and private sector
d. All economic activities are motivated by social welfare 
Answer:   c
Explanation :Mixed Economy is characterized by the co-existence of private and public sectors. Generally public sector is motivated by the general welfare while private sector perform economic activities out of profit motive 
26.Sustainable economic growth depends upon
  a. Investment, not saving
  b. Saving, not investment
  c. Both saving and investment
  d. Neither saving nor investment
Answer: c
Explanation :Saving makes the availability of fund for carrying out the investment activities. Investment cannot be carried out without saving. Further, saving is of no use until it is channelized into different investment activities. 
27.  Which of the following are not third-world regions? 
a. Latin America.
b. Asia.
c. Africa.
d. Australia
Answer: d
Explanation :Various terms has been used to developing countries such as the underdeveloped countries, less developed countries, Third world countries or region etc. developing countries exhibit some common features based on which one can differentiate these countries from developed countries. These regions are characterized by low growth rate, low saving and investment rates, low capital formation, high population growth, and lack of technological development. 
28. Economic development means 
a. Economic growth.
b. Economic growth plus structural and qualitative changes. 
c. Improvement in the living standard of the urban population.
d. Sustainable increases in Gross National Product (GDP).
Answer:  b
Explanation :Economic development means the change in growth along with progressive changes in socio-economic conditions of country. While Economic growth implies change or an increase in the real output of country.Growth must be accompanied by the progressive reduction in the inequalities and social vagaries for being called economic development. Economic growth does not take into account the social implications in form of reduction in inequalities. Change or increase in one component such as consumption or investment may be regarded as the economic growth. 
29. Who operates the monetary policy in India?
a. Ministry of Finance
b. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c. Security and Exchange Board of India
d. All of above
Answer: b
Explanation :Central Bank, The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for implementing the monetary policy in India. RBI uses the monetary policy for controlling the inflation and getting high rate of growth. Ministry of Finance and SEBI are not concerned with monetary policy. 
30. Consider the following statements:
I) Government disinvesting its share in various public sector undertakings
II) Process of disinvestment is very fast
III) Process of disinvestment is very slow and government always falls short of target
Which of above statements is/ are true about government policy of disinvestment
a. Only I
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. I, II and III
Answer: b
Explanation :Government of India is divesting its share from public sector undertakings,. Most of government undertakings were incurring losses during the pre liberalization period. Hence, after the introduction of new economic policy in 1991, government started downsizing its share in PSU. But the process of disinvestment is very slow due to host of legal and political hurdles. 
31.    Consider the following statements 
I.    Multidimensional poverty index was introduced in 2010
II.    It uses different factors to determine poverty beyond income-based lists
III.    It has replaced Human Poverty Index
IV.    It reflects deprivations in very rudimentary services and core human functioning for people.
Which of above statement is/are correct?
a.    I and II
b.    all are correct 
c.    only III
d.    II and IV
Answer: b

32.    Amartya Sen is known for 

a.    Welfare Economics
b.    Money and Banking 
c.    Industrial Economics 
d.    Behavioral Economics
Answer:  a 

33.  Liquidity refers to:
a.  Wealth available with investors
b.  Ease with which assets can be converted into the money
c.  Currency convertibility 
d.  All of above

Answer: b

34.  Which of following statement is true about the Primary deficit?
a.    It is difference between Revenue receipts and Revenue  Expenditure
b.    It is difference between capital receipts and Interest Payment    
c.    It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
d.    It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
Answer: c

35. Base Effect always remains in news, which of following statement is true about Base Effect:
a.    It is Change in numbers of items for which price quotations are taken
b.    It measures Impact of fuel items on inflation 
c.    It is related to Impact of the rise in price level  in the previous year over the rise in price levels in the current year
d.    It is related Problems which arises due to miscalculation 
Answer: c 


36.  What percent branches are to be established in unbanked areas under the provision of new Banking licensing scheme?

a.    20%
b.    40%
c.    22%
d.    25%
Answer: d

37. What does the tax heaven mean?
a. Important source of tax revenue for government 
b. countries or states which impose no tax or very low tax that attract wealth from all over the world. 
c. Rich class of society that pays the tax
d. Particular section of society that does not pay the tax
Answer: b


38. Our first five year plan primary focused on 
a. Agricultural Sector
b. Manufacturing Sector
c. Defense up gradation 
d. Service sector
Answer: a


39. Consider the following statements 
I) Recession reduces the demands for goods and services
II) Recession leads to unemployment 
III) Government interference is desirable to reverse the recessionary trends
Which of above statements is/ are true about Recession 
a.    Only I
b.    Only II
c.    I,II,III
d.    None of above 
Answer: c


40.  Consider the following statement:
I) Government disinvesting its share in various public sector undertakings
II) Process of disinvestment is very fast
III) Process of disinvestment is very slow and government always falls short of target
Which of above statements is/ are true about government policy of disinvestment
a.    Only I
b.    I and III
c.    I and II
d.    I, II and III
Answer: b