Wednesday, May 13, 2015

Mission Indradhanush

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) has launched Mission Indradhanush on 25th December 2014 with the aim of expanding immunization coverage to all children across India by year 2020. The Mission Indradhanush, depicting seven colours of the rainbow, targets to immunize all children against seven vaccine preventable diseases namely Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Childhood Tuberculosis, Polio, Hepatitis B and Measles. In addition to this, vaccines for JE (Japanese Encephalitis) and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type B) are also being provided in selected states.  Immunization is the key to protect children from life threatening conditions that are preventable. As per MOHFW, immunization coverage in India has increased from 61% to 65% only from 2009-2013. So, MOHFW has decided to intensify its efforts in immunization though this mission.      
Objectives of Mission Indradhanush
The government intends to cover 201 high focus districts in the first phase of year 2015.  These districts have nearly 50% of all unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children. Out of these 201 districts, 82 districts lie in just four states of India namely, UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Nearly 25% of the unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children of India live in these 82 districts of 4 states. Furthermore, another 297 districts will be targeted in the second phase of year 2015.
Strategy of Mission Indradhanush
The government has planned to conduct four special vaccination campaigns between January and June 2015.  All vaccines are already available free of cost under universal immunisation programme in India. Under this mission, government plans to intensify its efforts and thus increase accessibility of these vaccines to all the children of India. 

National AIDS Control Programme

HIV infection in India is a major challenge  with no State free from the virus. HIV/AIDS continues to show itself to be one of India's most complex epidemics - a challenge that goes beyond public health, raising fundamental issues of human rights and threatening development achievements in many areas. The need to prevent the progression of the epidemic and provide care and support for those infected or affected is calling for an unprecedented response from all sections of society. The National AIDS Control Organization, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched the National AIDS Control Programme- II, from December, 1999. The new national programme in implementation sees the country on the threshold of a new approach - marked by focusing on encouraging and enabling the States themselves to take on the responsibility of responding to the epidemic. It is also leading to growing partnerships between government, NGOs and civil society.
1. To reduce spread of HIV infection in India
2. Strengthen India's capacity to respond to HIV/AIDS on a long term basis.
Reflecting the extreme urgency with which HIV prevention and control need to be pursued in India, the AIDS - II project of the National AIDS Control Programme is across all States and Union Territories and a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% financial assistance from Government of India direct to State AIDS Control Societies and selected Municipal Corporations/AIDS Control Societies.

National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme

Launched in 2003-04 by merging National anti -malaria control programme ,National Filaria Control Programme and Kala Azar Control programmes .Japanese B Encephalitis and Dengue/DHF have also been included in this Program Directorate of NAMP is the nodal agency for prevention and control of major Vector Borne Diseases
List of Vector Borne Diseases Control Programme Legislations:
1)    National Anti - Malaria programme
2)    Kala - Azar Control Programme
3)    National Filaria Control Programme
4)    Japenese Encephilitis Control Programme
5)    Dengue and Dengue Hemorrhagic fever
Malaria is one of the serious public health problems in India. At the time of independence malaria was contributing 75 million cases with 0.8 million deaths every year prior to the launching of National Malaria Control Programme in 1953. A countrywide comprehensive programme to control malaria was recommended in 1946 by the Bhore committee report that was endorsed by the Planning Commission in 1951. The national programme against malaria has a long history since that time. In April 1953, Govt. of India launched a National Malaria Control Programme (NMCP).
  •  To bring down malaria transmission to a level at which it would cease to be a major public health problem.
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Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a chronic disease caused by an intracellular protozoan (Leishmania species) and transmitted to man by bite of female phlebotomus sand fly.Currently, it is a main problem in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and some parts of Uttar Pradesh. In view of the growing problem planned control measures were initiated to control kala-azar.
The strategy for kala-azar control broadly included three main activities.
  • Interruption of transmission by reducing vector population through indoor residual insecticides.
  • Early diagnosis and complete treatment of Kala-azar cases; and
  • Health education programme for community awareness. 
Bancrftian filariasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is transmitted to man by the bites of infected mosquitoes - Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia and Aedes. Lymphatia filaria is prevalent in 18 states and union territories. Bancrftian filariasis is widely distributed while brugian filariasis caused by Brugia malayi is restricted to 6 states - UP, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Gujarat. The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in 1955. The activities were mainly confined to urban areas. However, the programme has been extended to rural areas since 1994. 
  • Reduction of the problem in un-surveyed areas
  • Control in urban areas through recurrent anti-larval and anti-parasitic measures.
Japanese encephalitis (JE) is a zoonotic disease and caused by an arbovirus, group B (Flavivirus) and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes. This disease has been reported from 26 states and UTs since 1978, only 15 states are reporting JE regularly. The case fatality in India is 35% which can be reduced by early detection, immediate referral to hospital and proper medical and nursing care. The total population at risk is estimated 160 million. The most disturbing feature of JE has been the regular occurrence of outbreak in different parts of the country.
Govt. of India has constituted a Task Force at National Level which is in operation and reviews the JE situations and its control strategies from time to time. Though Directorate of National Anti-Malaria Programme is monitoring JE situation in the country.
  • Strengthening early diagnosis and prompt case management at PHCs, CHCs and hospitals through training of medical and nursing staff.
  • IEC for community awareness to promote early case reporting, personal protection, isolation of amplifier host, etc.;
  • Vector control measures mainly fogging during outbreaks, space spraying in animal dwellings, and antilarval operation where feasible; and
  • Development of a safe and standard indigenous vaccine. Vaccination for high risk population particularly children below 15 years of age.

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One of the most important resurgent tropical infectious disease is dengue. Dengue Fever and Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) are acute fevers caused by four antigenically related but distinct dengue virus serotypes (DEN 1,2,3 and 4) transmitted by the infected mosquitoes, Aedes aegypti. Dengue outbreaks have been reported from urban areas from all states. All the four serotypes of dengue virus (1,2,3 and 4) exist in India. The Vector Aedes Aegypti breed in peridomestic fresh water collections and is found in both urban and rural areas.
  •  Surveillance for disease and outbreaks
  •  Early diagnosis and prompt case management
  •  Vector control through community participation and social mobilization
  •  Capacity building

National Leprosy Eradication Programme

The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is a centrally sponsored Health Scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India. The Programme is headed by the Deputy Director of Health Services (Leprosy ) under the administrative control of the Directorate General Health Services Govt. of India. While the NLEP strategies and plans are formulated centrally, the programme is implemented by the States/UTs. The Programmes also supported as Partners by the World Health Organization, The International Federation of Anti-leprosy Associations (ILEP) and few other Non-Govt. Organizations.
The year 2012-13 started with 0.83 lakh leprosy cases on record as on 1st April 2012, with PR 0.68/10,000. Till then 33 States/ UTs had attained the level of leprosy elimination. A total of 542 districts (84.7%) out of total 640 districts also achieved elimination by March2012. A total of 209 high endemic districts were identified for special actions during 2012-13. After thorough analysis a total of 1792 blocks and 150 urban areas were identified for special activity plan (SAP- 2012). The States were advised to post well trained District Leprosy Officer in all the districts where these blocks are located. In addition one officer should be identified in each of these blocks to strengthen the process of supervision and monitoring. Active house to house survey was the main strategy alongwith IEC and capacity building of the workers and volunteers. This activity helped in detection of more than 20,000 new cases during 2012-13
1.  Early detection through active surveillance by the trained health workers;
2.  Regular treatment of cases by providing Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) at fixed in or centres a nearby village of moderate to low endemic areas/district;
3.  Intensified health education and public awareness campaigns to remove social stigma attached to the disease.
4.  Appropriate medical rehabilitation and leprosy ulcer care services.


The National TB Control Programme was stated in 1962 with the aim to detect cases earliest and treat them. In the district, the programme is implemented through the district Tuberculosis Centre (DTC) and the Primary Health Institutions. The District Tuberculosis Programme (DTP) is supported by the state level organization for the coordination and supervision of the programme. The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), based on the DOTS strategy, began as a pilot project in 1993 and was launched as a national programme in 1997 but rapid RNTCP expansion began in late 1998
The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme has initiated early and firm steps to its declared objective of Universal access to early quality diagnosis and quality TB care for all TB patients'. The year 2012 witnessed innumerable activities happening towards the same. Notification of TB; case based web based recording and reporting system ( NIKSHAY); Standards of TB care in India; Composite indicator for monitoring programme performance; Rapid scale up of the programmatic management of drug resistant TB services are few of the worthwhile mention in this regard.
NIKSHAY, the web based reporting for TB programme has been another notable achievement initiated in 2012 and has enabled capture and transfer of individual patient data from the remotest health institutions of the country.
Objectives :
  • Pursue quality DOTS expansion and enhancement, by improving the case finding are cure through an effective patient-centred approach to reach all patients, especially the poor.
  • Address TB-HIV, MDR-TB and other challenges, by scaling up TB-HIV joint activities, DOTS Plus, and other relevant approaches.
  • Contribute to health system strengthening, by collaborating with other health programmes and general services
  • Involve all health care providers, public, nongovernmental and private, by scaling up approaches based on a public-private mix (PPM), to ensure adherence to the International Standards of TB care.
  • Engage people with TB, and affected communities to demand, and contribute to effective care. This will involve scaling-up of community TB care; creating demand through  context-specific advocacy, communication and social mobilization.
  • Enable and promote research for the development of new drugs, diagnostic and vaccines. Operational Research will also be needed  to improve programme performance.

Pulse Polio Programme

With the global initiative of eradication of polio in 1988 following World Health Assembly resolution in 1988, Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched in India in 1995. Children in the age group of 0-5 years administered polio drops during National and Sub-national immunization rounds (in high risk areas) every year. About 172 million children are immunized during each National Immunization Day (NID).
The last polio case in the country was reported from Howrah district of West Bengal with date of onset 13th January 2011. Thereafter no polio case has been reported in the country (25th May 2012).
WHO on 24th February 2012 removed India from the list of countries with active endemic wild polio virus transmission.
Objective :
The Pulse Polio Initiative was started with an objective of achieving hundred per cent coverage under Oral Polio Vaccine. It aimed to immunize children through improved social mobilization, plan mop-up operations in areas where poliovirus has almost disappeared and maintain high level of morale among the public.

Sunday, May 3, 2015

Chhattisgarh D.Ed (Pre.) Exam General Awareness Solved Question Paper (Exam Held on 25-5-2014)

1. The most suitable soil for cotton cultivation is–
(A) Red soil (B) Laterite (C) Black soil (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

2. In which of the following year Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement? 
(A) 1920 (B) 1928 (C) 1930 (D) 1942 (Ans : D)

3. Right to Education Act 2009 is meant for which age group of children? 
(A) 15-20 years (B) 5-10 years (C) 6-14 years (D) 7-12years (Ans : C)

4. The headquarter of ‘World Health Organisation’ is located at– 
(A) Geneva (B) London (C) Paris (D) India (Ans : A)

5. Which of the following body prepared the model syllabus in 2005 for O. Ed / B. Ed courses? 
(A) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) 
(B) National Council for Education Research and Training (NCERT) 
(C) (A) and (B) both 
(D) None of the above (Ans : C)

6. For which of the following invention Alexander Fleming is known for– 
(A) X-Rays (B) Gravitation (C) Penicillin (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

7. The apex body for Distance Education is– 
(A) University Grants Commission (B) Distance Education Council 
(C) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

8. The revamp of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was finalised in the year– 
(A) 2010 (B) 2011 (C) 2012 (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

9. As per census of 2011 the female: male sex ratio of India is– 
(A) 933 : 1000 (B) 1038 : 1000 (C) 1084 : 1000 (D) 943 : 1000 (Ans : D)

10. Which of the following city was founded by Akbar and made it his capital? 
(A) Delhi (B) Agra (C) Burhanpur (D) Fatehpur Sikri (Ans : D)

11. Who of the following was the famous woman ruler of the Gupta - Vakataka period in ancient India? 
(A) Kuber-naga (B) Prabhavati Gupta (C) Rajyashri (D) Kumardevi (Ans : B)

12. What is meaning of Quo-warranto? 
(A) By which authority (B) Be more fully informed
(C) We command (D) Let’s have the body (Ans : A)

13. Excise duty is a tax levied on– 
(A) Import of goods (B) Export of goods 
(C) Production of goods (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

14. The theory of ‘Basic Structure of the constitution’ was propound by the supreme court in which case? 
(A) Golaknath case (B) Menka Gandhi case 
(C) Keshavanand Bharti case (D) Minerva Mills case (Ans : C)

15. The Central Banking in India is performed by– 
(A) Central Bank of India (B) State Bank of India 
(C) Regional Rural Banks (D) None of the above (Ans : D)

16. As per census 2011 which of the following is not amongst the largest populous State in India? 
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal 
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh (Ans : D)

17. Indian Economy is a– 
(A) Mixed Economy (B) Free Economy 
(C) Socialist Economy (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

18. Who among these is known as ‘Father of Green Revolution’ ? 
(A) Vikram Sarabhai (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan 
(C) Hargovind Singh Khurana (D) Vergeese Kurian (Ans : B)

19. Why the signature of President is compulsory in the bills passed by parliament? 
(A) He is the Head of the Executive (B) He takes responsibility to executive the law 
(C) He is symbol of sovereignty of the state (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

20. Which one of the following is an example of non-metallic mineral? 
(A) Asbestos (B) Bauxite (C) Hematite (D) Chalcopyrite (Ans : A)

21. EDUSAT is– 
(A) Teaching Satellite (B) Teaching Television 
(C) Teaching Technology (D) Teaching Device (Ans : A)

22. Which is the main function of education in human life? 
(A) All round development of personality (B) To make a man researcher 
(C) To make good citizen (D) Inculcation of social feelings (Ans : A)

23. Teacher would be effective, if the teacher– 
(A) Has purposeful intention (B) Is master of his subject 
(C) Uses various instructional aids (D) Declares his objectives in the beginning (Ans : C)

24. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination you will– 
(A) Ridicule him 
(B) Advise him to sit at home and do some job 
(C) Advise him to appear in exam privately 
(D) Guide him in various subjects according to his needs (Ans : D)

25. Which of the followings institution is not related to the field of education? 
(A) NCERT (B) UGC (C) NCTE (D) IMF (Ans : D)

26. Curriculum should be– 
(A) Rigid (B) Unpsychological 
(C) Flexible (D) Not promoting democratic feeling (Ans : C)

27. Presently the schools, are not able to fulfil the following– 
(A) Development of moral values 
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity 
(C) Preparation for examinations for various degrees 
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children (Ans : A)

28. Characteristics of Infancy is– 
(A) Dependency on others (B) Rapidity in physical development 
(C) Rapidity in learning process (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

29. Meaning of Education is– 
(A) Knowledge (B) Dictionary (C) Grantha (D) Religion (Ans : A)

30. A successful teacher is one, who– 
(A) Finishes course prior to scheduled time 
(B) Motivates students for learning 
(C) Shows the performance of the class as good 
(D) Helps the students in preparing notes (Ans : B)

31. A knowledge of the nature of individual difference is essential for– 
(A) Principal (B) Parents (C) Teacher (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

32. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect? 
(A) Camp organization for students (B) Poetry recitation 
(C) Literarcy interests (D) Community service (Ans : C)

33. Who first attempted to make primary education free and compulsory ? 
(A) Dr. Radha Krishnan (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 
(C) Dr. Laxman Swami Mudaliar (D) Mahatma Gandhi (Ans : D)

34. In order to develop a good rapport with students, the most important activity of the teacher should be– 
(A) Love his students (B) Be friendly with students 
(C) Pay individual attention (D) Communicate well (Ans : C)

35. What will be most appropriate in case of students conduct indecently?
(A) To make them feel guilty (B) To get very angry upon them 
(C) To punish them (D) To make them full ashamed by preaching (Ans : A)

36. The main purpose of Parent Teacher Association in, any school is to– 
(A) Control students 
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching 
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school 
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning (Ans : D)

37. Teaching Aids are used– 
(A) To raise the teaching upto the understanding level of students 
(B) To make the teaching interesting 
(C) To impress the students 
(D) To develop the aptitude of students (Ans : B)

38. In students learning ability is dependent on– 
(A) Family (B) Individual differences (C) Culture (D) Society (Ans : B)

39. A teacher should be involved in social activities– 
(A) Seldom (B) Only when needed 
(C) Very frequently (D) Never (Ans : B)

40. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class? 
(A) Discriminating (B) He should pay more attention to weak students 
(C) Equal for all students (D) Pay more attention to intelligent students (Ans : C)

41. Education for equality means– 
(A) Education for women (B) Education for scheduled castes 
(C) Education for weaker sections (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

42. Your view towards slow learner students will be– 
(A) Sympathetic (B) Hateful (C) Revengeful (D) Disinteresting (Ans : A)

43. Students like the teacher who– 
(A) Dictates notes in the class (B) Reads and explain the books 
(C) Give less homework (D) Follows innovative practices in the class (Ans : D)

44. Life long process is called– 
(A) Motivation (B) Teaching (C) Education (D) Training (Ans : C)

45. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ? 
(A) To lead the society (B) To be the centre of social life 
(C) To remain engaged in social activities (D) To be honoured by society (Ans : B)

46. The main task of teacher is– 
(A) To prepare good citizens from his students (B) To complete the prescribed syllabus 
(C) To increase knowledge (D) To do politics in school (Ans : C)

47. What would be your reaction if a student interrupts the class? 
(A) You will ask him to leave the class 
(B) You will ask him to behave properly 
(C) You will assess the reasons to do the same 
(D) You will give him extra home work (Ans : C)

48. Emotional adjustment of the students is effective in– 
(A) Personality formation (B) Class teaching (C) Discipline (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

49. Which education provides many benefits to adults and those who are living in remote areas? 
(A) School education (B) Informal education (C) Distance education (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

50. Why is the parent teacher association considered to be important? 
(A) This helps the school function properly 
(B) Helps in understanding the students in a better way 
(C) Helps in solving student’s problems 
(D) Helps the parents and teacher coming closer (Ans : D)

Monday, April 20, 2015

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam General Studies Solved Paper (Exam Held on 30-11-2014)

1. Which of the following economists, introduced fiscal policy as a tool to rectify the Great Depression of 1929-30?
(A) Prof. Keynes (B) Prof. Pigou (C) Prof. Marshall (D) Prof. Crowther (Ans : A)

2. The Committee on Financial Sector Reforms 2008, in India was headed by– 
(A) Bimal Jalan (B) Raghuram Rajan (C) C. Rangarajan (D) M. Narasimham (Ans : B)

3. As per Census 2011, the sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) in India is– 
(A) 925 (B) 947 (C) 916 (D) 940 (Ans : D)

4. The Planned Development Model was adopted in India from– 
(A) April 1, 1951 (B) August 15, 1947 (C) January 26, 1950 (D) May 1, 1965 (Ans : A)

5. Which one of the following is the Chairman of the National Development Council ? 
(A) Prime Minister of India (B) Finance Minister of Govt. of India 
(C) President of India (D) Vice-President of India (Ans : A)

6. Which of the following states in India is famous for rubber cultivation? 
(A) Karnataka (B) Odisha (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Kerala (Ans : D)

7. Which one of the following is part of fiscal policy? 
(A) Production policy (B) Tax policy (C) Foreign policy (D) Interest rate policy (Ans : B)

8. NREGA was renamed ‘MNREGA’ on– 
(A) October 2, 2007 (B) February 2, 2008 (C) October 2, 2009 (D) October 2, 2010 (Ans : C)

9. The Indian rupee was made convertible into which of the following accounts since March 1994 ? 
(A) Capital Account (B) Current Account (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Revenue Account (Ans : B)

10. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority was set up in India on– 
(A) April 2000 (B) April 2001 (C) April 2002 (D) Apri1 2003 (Ans : A)

11. Which of the following economists propagated the Pure Monetary Theory of Trade Cycle? 
(A) Hawtrey (B) Hayek (C) Keynes (D) Hicks (Ans : A)

12. Who is the author of the book ‘The Accumulation of Capital’? 
(A) Mrs. Joan Robinson (B) Adam Smith (C) Lord Maynard Keynes (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

13. Multimedia can contain– 
(A) Numeric, text, and picture data (B) Graphics, animation, video, music and voice 
(C) Only numeric type data (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

14. Sending an identical e-mail message repeatedly to a particular address by any abuser is called– 
(A) E-mail Spoofing (B) E-mail Spamming (C) E-mail Bombing (D) None of the above (Ans : C)

15. A program that has capability to infect other programs and make copies of itself and spread into other programs is called– 
(A) Worm (B) Virus (C) Trojan (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

16. The practice of using more than one type of medium in computer at the same time is called– 
(A) Multimedia (B) Macromedia (C) Interactivity (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

17. One carbon credit is equivalent to– 
(A) 10 kg of CO2 (B) 100 kg of CO2 
(C) 1000 kg of CO2 (D) 10000 kg of CO2 (Ans : C)

18. Kedar valley disaster of June, 2013, was cause by heavy rains in the catchment area of a river, which was– 
(A) Alaknanda (B) Bhagirathi (C) Yamuna (D) Mandakini (Ans : D)

19. Leakage of which of the following gases had caused the Bhopal Gas Tragedy? 
(A) Methyl isocyanate (B) Carbon Mono-oxide 
(C) Nitric oxide (D) Sulphur di-oxide (Ans : A)

20. Minamata disease is caused due to– 
(A) Arsenic poisoning (B) Lead poisoning 
(C) Mercury poisoning (D) Cadmium poisoning (Ans : C)

21. The number of organisms that can be supported by the environment in a given area is known as– 
(A) Population (B) Carrying Capacity 
(C) Pyramid of number or biomass (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

22. The size of the nano-particle ranges between– 
(A) 100 mm to 1000 nm (B) 0.1 nm to 1 nm 
(C) 1 nm to 100 nm (D) 0.01 nm to 0.1 nm (Ans : C)

23. Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India? 
(A) Regulation of currency (B) Regulation of foreign trade 
(C) Regulation of credit (D) Custody and management of country’s foreign exchange reserves. (Ans : B)

24. In Cyber Law terminology ‘DOS’ means– 
(A) Denial of Service (B) Disk Operating System 
(C) Distant Operator Service (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

25. Which among the following gas is most responsible for global warming? 
(A) Nitrogen (B) Methane (C) Carbon di-oxide (D) Carbon mono-oxide (Ans : C)

26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 
(A) Ebola Virus -Small Pox (B) Biometric identification – Fingerprints and Iris scan 
(C) Cloning – Genetic replica (D) DNA Fingerprinting – Paternity or criminal identification (Ans : A)

27. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants to produce electricity ? 
(A) U-233 (B) U-234 (C) U-235 (D) U-239 (Ans : C)

28. The main constituent of biogas is– 
(A) Hydrogen (B) Methane (C) Butane (D) Acetylene (Ans : B)

29. Which one of the following element is used in solar cells? 
(A) Silicon (B) Cerium (C) Astatine (D) Vanadium (Ans : A)

30. Which among the following is not a polymer? 
(A) Nylon (B) Teflon (C) Caprolactum (D) Polystyrene (Ans : B)

31. Which Vitamin is required for in clotting of blood? 
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K (Ans : D)

32. Filament of electric bulb is made of– 
(A) Tungsten (B) Nichrome (C) Lead (D) Aluminium (Ans : A)

33. Which of the following radiations has the highest energy per quantum? 
(A) 320-400 nm (B) 200-280 nm (C) 280-320 nm (D) 400-600 nm (Ans : B)

34. India’s first dedicated navigation satellite IRNSS - lA was launched from– 
(A) Sriharikota (B) Ahmedabad (C) Thiruvananthpuram (D) Bengaluru (Ans : A)

35. Biodiversity changes occur– 
(A) Increases towards the equator (B) Decreases towards the equator 
(C) Remains unchanged throughout the Earth (D) Increase towards the poles (Ans : A)

36. Bacillus thuringiensis is used as– 
(A) Biofertilizer (B) Biological insecticide (C) Chemical fertilizer (D) Chemical insecticide (Ans : B)

37. Who won the Gold Medal in the 20th (Glasgow) Commonwealth Games 2014 in Wrestling in 74 kg weight category ? 
(A) Virendra Kumar (B) Sushil Kumar (C) Yogeshwar Dutt (D) Praveen Kumar (Ans : B)

38. Who among the following scientists has been conferred upon ‘Bharat Ratna’ for the year 2013 ? 
(A) K. L. Mashelkar (B) G. P. Rao (C) Hariharan Parthsarthi (D) C.N.R. Rao (Ans : D)

39. Great Himalayan National Park, which has been accorded the UNESCO World Heritage Site status, is located in– 
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Jammu-Kashmir (D) Nagaland (Ans : B)

40. Where is the Headquarters of North-Central Railway Zone situated? 
(A) Allahabad (B) Jabalpur (C) Bhopal (D) Delhi (Ans : A)

41. In the Union Budget, 2014 the Integrated Ganga Conservation Mission has been called as– 
(A) Clean Ganga (B) Sacred Ganga (C) The Great Ganga (D) Namami Gange (Ans : D)

42. According to National Youth Policy 2014, the youths of which one of the following age groups will be benefitted ? 
(A) 15-29 years (B) 16-28 years (C) 15-22 years (D) 17-28 years (Ans : A)

43. International Day of Non-violence is observed on– 
(A) December 10 (B) January 30 (C) October 2 (D) March 23 (Ans : C)

44. The "Rashtriya Gokul Mission" announced by the Union Government aims at-
(A) Protecting the indigenous breed of cows (B) Developing high milk yielding cow breeds 
(C) Curbing slaughtering of cattles (D) Eliminating Foot and Mouth disease in cattles (Ans : A)

45. POCSO Act is related to– 
(A) Oil companies (B) Children (C) Civil servants (D) Oceans (Ans : B)

46. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 
(A) Optic fibres - Light waves (B) Android - Voice input 
(C) Large Hadron Collider - God particle (D) Red Planet - Mars (Ans : B)

47. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is situated at– 
(A) Dehradun (B) New Delhi (C) Lucknow (D) Nagpur (Ans : A)

48. Who among the following won the Presidential election of Syria for the third time in 2014 ? 
(A) Abdel Fattah el sisi (B) Bashar-Al-Asad (C) Nuri Abu Sahmein (D) Noori-AI-Maliki (Ans : B)

49. The new government at the centre has recently ratified the Marrakesh Treaty. This treaty aims at– 
(A) Developing Marine Living resources (B) Regulating air transport services 
(C) Promotion of access to published works by visually impaired persons and persons with print disabilities (D) Promoting studies in cell-biology (Ans : C)

50. Which one of the following films bagged the Palmed’ or award at Cannes Film Festival-2014 ? 
(A) Winter Sleep (B) Grace of Monaco 
(C) The Wonders (D) Goodbye to Languages (Ans : A)

51. Who among the following has been the first African U.N. Secretary General? 
(A) Ban Ki Moon (B) Javier Perez De Cuellar 
(C) Boutros-Boutros Ghali (D) U-Thant (Ans : C)

52. Which one of the following surface to air missiles was success-fully testfired in May 2014 from Chandipur (Odisha) ? 
(A) Prithavi (B) Aakash (C) Trishul (D) Brahmos (Ans : B)

53. What is the name of the new museum that was inaugurated in the Rashtrapati Bhawan on July 25, 2014 ? 
(A) Glimpses of History (B) Toshakhana (C) The Stables (D) Indradhanush (Ans : C)

54. Who among the following won the Asian Billiard Championship in June 2014 ? 
(A) Alok Kumar (B) B. Bhaskar (C) Dhruv Sitwala (D) Saurav Kothari (Ans : D)

55. Which of the following has won gold medal of Wimbledon Under-19 Gold-tournament of 2014 ? 
(A) Unmukta Chand (B) Leander Paes (C) Lakshya Sen (D) Saina Nehwal (Ans : C)

56. Which of the following state / states will be benefitted by the proposed ‘Kishau Dam’ Project? 
(A) Haryana (B) Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh 
(C) Jammu-Kashmir (D) Assam (Ans : B)

57. Who has been appointed the new National Security Advisor of India? 
(A) Dalbir Singh (B) Amit Shah (C) K. P. S. Menon (D) Ajit Kumar Doval (Ans : D)

58. Who was the Chief Guest at the Republic Day parade 2014 of India? 
(A) Nawaz Sharif (B) Shinzo Abe (C) Hu Jinto (D) Sheikh Hasina (Ans : B)

59. Who is India’s women Parliamentarian to win election for the eight consecutive times from the same Lok Sabha Constituency? 
(A) Sushma Swaraj (B) Sumitra Mahajan (C) Maneka Gandhi (D) Savitri Jindal (Ans : B)

60. Who is the author of the book "Out of Print – Newspapers, Journalism and the Business of News in the Digital Age" ? 
(A) Professor George Brock (B) Rabbin Jafferey (C) Nic Newman (D) Mark Tully (Ans : A)

61. Who has been appointed as the ‘Horticulture Ambassador of Maharashtra’ ? 
(A) Akshay Kumar (B) Ranbir Kapoor (C) Ranveer Singh (D) Amitabh Bachchan (Ans : D)

62. According to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Report of July 2014 which one of the following countries has effectively reduced its stockpile of enriched Uranium ? 
(A) North Korea (B) Iran (C) Iraq (D) Libya (Ans : B)

63. Who was nominated as ‘Good Will Ambassador’ by ‘U.N. Women’ - a forum of the United Nations, for its ‘He for She’ campaign in July 2014 ? 
(A) J. K. Rowling (B) Julia Roberts (C) Maria Sharapova (D) Emma Watson (Ans : D)

64. Which of the following won the first medal for India at the 17th Asian Games organised in South Korea? 
(A) Shweta Choudhari (B) P. Kashyap (C) Sanjita Chanu (D) Deepika Kumari (Ans : A)

65. According to Fortaleza Declaration (Brazil 2014) of Sixth BRICS Summit what is the initial subsidized capital to be equally shared among founding members to establish new development bank and for addressing infra- structure gaps and sustainable development needs? 
(A) 200 billion U.S. dollars (B) 150 billion U.S. dollars (C) 100 billion U.S. dollars (D) 50 billion U.S. dollars (Ans : C)

66. Which one of the following organizations has officially declared India as a Polio free country in March 2014 ? 
(A) W.H.O. (B) U.N.O. (C) Red Cross Society (D) None of these (Ans : A)

67. Which of the following is presently the Chairperson of Rashtriya Mahila Ayog ? 
(A) Lalitha Kumaramangalam (B) Girija Vyas (C) Mamta Sharma (D) Nazma Heptullah (Ans : A)

68. The famous Nanda Rajjat of Uttarakhand took place during which period in 2014? 
(A) From 4 August to 6th September (B) From 16 August to 16th September 
(C) From 18 August to 6th September (D) From 21 August to 10th September (Ans : C)

69. Who was known as ‘Nakati Rani’ in the history of Garhwal ? 
(A) Guleria Rani (B) Kamavati Rani (C) Nepalia Rani (D) Kamlendumati Rani (Ans : B)

70. Garhwal Sarvadalita Board was constituted in 1928 A.D. by– 
(A) Mohan Singh Mehta (B) Badri Dutt Pande (C) Jayananda Bharti (D) Hargovind Pant (Ans : C)

71. ‘Praja Mandal’ was established at Dehradun with the objective– 
(A) To get freedom from British rule (B) To get freedom from Gurkha rule 
(C) To organize people for social reforms (D) To free the people from misrule of Tehri-Rajya (Ans : D)

72. Read the statements (A) and (B) and choose the correct answer from the codes given below– 
(a) The sixth century B.C. was a period of great religious upheaval in all parts of the world. 
(b) The Vedic religion had become very complex. 
(A) Both (a) and (b) are false. (B) Both (a) and (b) are true. 
(C) (a) is true, while (b) is false. (D) (a) is false, while (b) is true. (Ans : B)

73. The earliest known epigraphic evidence of Bhagvatism is– 
(A) Prayag Prashasti of Samudra Gupta (B) Nasik inscription of Gautami Balshri 
(C) Garuda column at Besnagar (D) Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva (Ans : C)

74. Buddhist text ‘Milindapanho’ throws light on which Indo- Greek ruler? 
(A) Diodorus II (B) Demetrius (C) Minender (D) Strato I (Ans : C)

75. In which Vedic text the term ‘Varna’ is found referred for the first time? 
(A) Rigveda (B) Atharvaveda (C) Samveda (D) Yajurveda (Ans : A)

76. There were different causes for the downfall of the Gupta empire. Which one was not the cause among the statements given below? 
(A) Huna invasion (B) Feudal set-up of administration 
(C) Acceptance of Buddhism by the later Guptas (D) Arab invasion (Ans : D)

77. Almora coins bear the names– 
(A) Sivapala, Sivapalita and Haripal (B) Sivapalita, Siva and Hari 
(C) Sivadatta, Sivapalita and Haridatta (D) Sivadatta, Sivapalita and Hari (Ans : C)

78. Tick out the correctly matched option out of the following combination of king and his capital– 
(A) Somchand – Raj Bunga (B) Kankapal – Devalgarh 
(C) Ajaypal – Tehri (D) Man Singh – Chand pur garh 
(Ans : A)

79. Match the following monuments with their concerned ruler and select the correct code given below– 
(a) Double dome (b) Octagonal tomb (c) True arch tomb (d) Gol Gumbad 
Ruler 1. Sher Shah 2. Muhammad Adil Shah 3. Balban 4. Sikandar Lodi 
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 4 3 1 2 
(B) 4 1 3 2 
(C) 1 3 4 2 
(D) 2 3 1 4 (Ans : B)

80. Which monument is not at Fatehpur Sikri? 
(A) Golden Palace (B) Panch Mahal (C) Jodha Bai Palace (D) Akbari Mahal (Ans : D)

81. Which one of the following Ashrams related to Mahatma Gandhi, is the oldest? 
(A) Sabarmati (B) Phoenix (C) Wardha (D) Sadaqat (Ans : B)

82. The first Chief Justice of Supreme Court established by the East India Company was-
(A) Elijah Impey (B) Courtney Ilbert (C) Phillip Francis (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

83. Who was the author of ‘Neel-Darpan’ ? 
(A) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterji 
(C) Nabagopal Mitra (D) Dinabandhu Mitra (Ans : D)

84. Azimullah Khan was an advisor to– 
(A) Nana Saheb (B) Tantya Tope (C) Rani Laxmi Bai (D) Kunwar Singh (Ans : A)

85. Who established ‘Satya Sodhak Samaj’ ? 
(A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Santram (C) Jotiba Phule (D) Bhaskar Rao Jadhav (Ans : C)

86. Muzaffar Ahmad, S.A. Dange, Shaukat Usmani and Nalini Gupta were jailed for which conspiracy ? 
(A) Kakori train heist (B) Chittagong Armoury raid (C) Meerut conspiracy case (D) Kanpur Bolshevik conspiracy case (Ans : D)

87. The longest glacier in Uttara-khand is– 
(A) Pindari Glacier (B) Chorabari Glacier (C) Yamunotri Glacier (D) Gangotri Glacier (Ans : D)

88. The earliest reference of ‘Magnetic Compass’ is found in– 
(A) Miftahul Fuzala (B) Chachnama (C) Ranazatu’s Safar (D) Jawamiul Hikayat (Ans : D)

89. After the downfall of the Delhi Sultanate, who was the first ruler to issue the gold coin? 
(A) Akbar (B) Humayun (C) Shahjahan (D) Sher Shah (Ans : A)

90. In which of the following river’s confluence is Gobindghat located? 
(A) Alaknanda and Bhagirathi (B) Alaknanda and Khirongad 
(C) Alaknanda and Laxman Ganga (Bhyundar Gad) (D) Alaknanda and Dhauli Ganga 
(Ans : C)

91. Which of the following is a bio-sphere reserve in Uttarakhand ? 
(A) Gobind (B) Corbett 
(C) Rajaji (D) Nanda Devi (Ans : D)

92. Which one is the most extensive part of the oceanic floor? 
(A) Ocean Deeps (B) Continental Slope 
(C) Continental Shelves (D) Deep Sea Plains (Ans : D)

93. Grenada is located in– 
(A) Pacific Ocean (B) Indian Ocean (C) Caribbean Sea (D) Mediterranean Sea (Ans : C)

94. A telegram was sent from Greenwich at 12.00 Noon. The time for transmission was 12 minutes. It reached a town at 6.00 p.m. The longitude of the town will be– 
(A) 97° E (B) 87° E (C) 87° W (D) 97° W (Ans : B)

95. Which one of the following is not a member of ‘BRICS’ ? 
(A) India (B) China (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Brazil (Ans : C)

96. Which one of the following is not associated to the ‘group’ ? 
(A) Gneiss (B) Sandstone (C) Limestone (D) Shale (Ans : A)

97. The state having highest literacy rate as per 2011 Census is– 
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Manipur (C) Rajasthan (D) Mizoram (Ans : D)

98. Which of the following is not properly matched? 
Biosphere Reserve  State 
(A) Similipal – Odisha 
(B) Nokrek – Meghalaya
(C) Agasthya malai – Kerala 
(D) Kanchen junga – Himachal Pradesh (Ans : D)

99. According to 2011 Census, which of the following districts of Uttarakhand had negative population growth-rate? 
(A) Pithoragarh (B) Almora (C) Rudraprayag (D) Uttarkashi (Ans : B)

100. Which are called ‘Duns’ in Uttarakhand ? 
(A) Structural valleys (B) River valleys (C) Alpine grasslands (D) Narrow valleys (Ans : A)

101. On the outline map of India (A), (B), (C) and (D) depict the location of four coal fields. Which one is not correctly shown on the map?

(A) Satpura (B) Son valley (C) Korba (D) Karnpura (Ans : D)

102. Which one of the following groups is the correct sequence of mountain peaks from east to west? 
(A) Everest, Kanchenjunga, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri (B) Kanchenjunga, Everest, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri 
(C) Kanchenjunga, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna, Everest (D) Everest, Kanchenjunga, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna (Ans : B)

103. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below– 
List-I (Industry) 
(a) Fertilizer (b) Glass (c) Cement (d) Synthetic silk 
List- II (Location) 
1. Kota 2. Udaipur 3. Jaipur 4. Sriganganagar 
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
(A) 4 3 2 1 
(B) 1 4 3 2 
(C) 2 1 4 3 
(D) 3 2 1 4 (Ans : A)

104. Which one of the following rivers is associated with Sardar Sarovar Project? 
(A) Narmada (B) Tapti (Tapi) (C) Godawari (D) Cauvery (Kaveri) (Ans : A)

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below– 
List-I (Sea-Port) 
(a) Alleppey (b) Ennore (c) Paradip (d) Kakinada 
List-II (State) 
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Odisha 3. Kerala 4. Andhra Pradesh 
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4 
(B) 4 2 1 3 
(C) 2 4 3 1 
(D) 1 3 4 2 (Ans : A)

106. Basaltic Lava rocks over Indian Deccan Plateau are formed in the following period– 
(A) Cretaceous period (B) Pleistocene period 
(C) Carboniferrous period (D) Miocene period (Ans : A)

107. Who was the first Indian to join as a member of UN Human Rights Commission, constituted in 1946? 
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu (B) Smt. Hansa Mehta 
(C) Smt. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

108. Treaties of ‘START-I’ and ‘START-II’ were signed– 
(A) Between USA and USSR (B) Between USA and China 
(C) Between USSR and China (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

109. When did the Protection of Human Rights Act come into force in India ? 
(A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1992 (D) 1993 (Ans : D)

110. Under which agreement International Monetary Fund was established? 
(A) Bretton Woods Agreement (B) Bretton Stone Agreement 
(C) S. Woods Agreement (D) U. Thant Agreement (Ans : A)

111. When was South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation 
(SAARC) established? 
(A) 1984 (B) 1987 (C) 1985 (D) 1989 (Ans : C)

112. State Legislative Assembly can participate in the election of following– 
I. President of India II. Vice-President of India 
III. Members of Rajya Sabha IV. Members of Legislative Council 
Select the correct answer– 
(A) I, II and III (B) I, III and IV (C) I and III (D) I, II and IV (Ans : B)

113. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the States of India in descending order of their area? 
(A) Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh (B) Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Chhattis-garh 
(C) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand (D) Himachal Pradesh, Uttara-khand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh (Ans : C)

114. Which river among the following does not join the Ganga river from left? 
(A) Gomati (B) Ghaghra (C) Kosi (D) Son (Ans : D)

115. By whom the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged? 
(A) President of India (B) Parliament by passing a resolution 
(C) Parliament by making a law (D) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India (Ans : C)

116. Council of Minister is collectively responsible to whom? 
(A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha (Ans : D)

117. Which of the following has been described as the soul of the Indian Constitution? 
(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy 
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies (D) The Preamble (Ans : C)

118. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of– 
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs (B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs 
(C) President of India (D) Lok Sabha Speaker (Ans : D)

119. Who among the following is not appointed by the State Governor? 
(A) Chief Minister (B) Members, State Public Service Commission 
(C) Judges of High Court (D) Advocate General (Ans : C)

120. Under which of the following the Constituent Assembly of India was constituted ? 
(A) Government of India Act, 1935 (B) Cripps Proposals, 1942 
(C) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 (Ans : C)

121. Which of the following constitute the Indian Parliament? 
(A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister 
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Minister for Parliamentary Affairs (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Parliament Secretariat (Ans : A)

122. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament? 
(A) President of India (B) Vice-President of India 
(C) Prime Minister of India (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha (Ans : D)

123. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India? 
(A) Five years (B) Six years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier 
(C) Five years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier (D) During the pleasure of the President of India (Ans : B)

124. Where the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed? 
(A) Only in Supreme Court of India (B) Only in High Courts of States 
(C) In Central Administrative Tribunals (D) Both in High Courts and Supreme Court (Ans : D)

125. Who was the first Governor of Uttaranchal (now Uttarakhand) ? 
(A) Smt. Margret Alva (B) Shri Sudarshan Agarwal 
(C) Shri B. L. Joshi (D) Shri Surjit Singh Barnala (Ans : D)

126. Which Constitutional amendment provided constitutional status to urban local government? 
(A) 72nd (B) 73rd (C) 74th (D) 71st (Ans : C)

127. Who was the first Chairman of ‘Uttarakhand Kranti Dal’? 
(A) D.D. Pant (B) Badri Datt Pande 
(C) Diwakar Bhatt (D) Mathura Prasad Barnrada (Ans : A)

128. Who is known as ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’ ? 
(A) Gaura Devi (B) Sunderlal Bahuguna 
(C) Madho Singh Bhandari (D) Indramani Badoni (Ans : D)

129. A person can contest the Panchayat election, if he has attained the age of– 
(A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 21 years (D) 18 years (Ans : C)

130. By which Constitutional Amendment OBCs have been given 27 per cent reservation in the admission to educational institutions? 
(A) 92nd (B) 93rd (C) 94th (D) 96th (Ans : B)

131. Who administers the Oath of office and secrecy to the Governor? 
(A) President (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court 
(C) Chief Justice of High Court (D) Chief Minister (Ans : C)

132. Which one of the following states first established the institution of Lokayukta? 
(A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Bihar (D) Gujarat (Ans : B)

133. Which of the following commissions/ committees has recommended the creation of a Local Body Ombudsman ? 
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission (B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission 
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee (D) Ashok Mehta Committee (Ans : B)

134. Which one of the following committees is not associated with Panchayat Raj System in India? 
(A) Dinesh Goswami Committee (B) L. M. Singhvi Committee 
(C) Sadiq Ali Committee (D) Ashok Mehta Committee (Ans : A)

135. Under which article of the Constitution reservations in admission to educational institutions, including private and unaided, to OBCs/ST /SC is made? 
(A) Article 15(4) (B) Article 15(5) 
(C) Article 16(4) (D) Article 16(5) (Ans : B)

136. ‘Right to Education’ introduced through 86th Amendment came into force– 
(A) In 2002 (B) In 2004 (C) In 2008 (D) In 2010 (Ans : D)

137. Which tribes of Uttarakhand had trade relations with Tibet before 1962 war with China? 
(A) Raji (B) Bhotia (C) Boksa (D) Jaunsari (Ans : B)

138. Who established the ‘Garhdesh Seva Sangh’ ? 
(A) Sridev Suman (B) Badri Datt Pande (C) Rampal (D) Gopi Chand (Ans : A)

139. As per 2011 Census, literacy rate of Uttarakhand State is– 
(A) 79.63 per cent (B) 87.40 per cent (C) 70.40 per cent (D) 75.80 per cent (Ans : A)

140. Which one of the following is the highest snow-covered peak of Uttarakhand State? 
(A) Kamet (B) Trisule (C) Nanda Devi (D) Chogori (Ans : C)

141. On which of the following rivers, the Tehri Hydro Power Project has been constructed? 
(A) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda (B) Yamuna and Bhagirathi 
(C) Kali and Tonse (D) Bhagirathi and Bhilangana (Ans : D)

142. Which one of the following countries was included in ‘BRICS’ in the last? 
(A) India (B) China (C) South Africa (D) Brazil (Ans : C)

143. The Bretton Woods Conference led to the establishment of– 
I. I.M.F. II. I.B.R.D. III. United Nations IV. W.T.O. 
(A) I and II (B) I, II and III 
(C) I and III (D) I, II, III and IV (Ans : A)

144. Which one of the following organizations publishes the Human Development Report? 
(A) UNESCO (B) World Bank (C) U.N.D.P. (D) I.M.F. 
(Ans : C)

145. Which one of the following World Bank affiliates, provides assistance for poverty alleviation to the world’s poorest countries? 
(A) International Finance Corporation (B) International Development Association 
(C) Multi-lateral Investment Guarantee Agency (D) International Monetary Fund 
(Ans : B)

146. When the exchange rate changes from 1$ = Rs. 60 to 1$ = Rs. 58, it means– 
I. Rupee value has appreciated II. Dollar value has depreciated 
III. Rupee value has depreciated IV. Dollar value has appreciated 
(A) I and II are correct. (B) II and III are correct. 
(C) I and IV are correct. (D) II and IV are correct. (Ans : A)

147. According to Malthusian Theory of Population, population increases in– 
(A) Geometrical Progression (B) Arithmetic Progression 
(C) Harmonic Progression (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

148. The Phillips Curve represents relationship between– 
(A) Deflation and Unemployment (B) Inflation and Unemployment 
(C) Inflation and Disguised Unemployment (D) Deflation and Cyclical Unemployment (Ans : B)

149. Which one of the following is known as ‘mystery lake’ of Uttarakhand ? 
(A) Nainital (B) Sattal (C) Roopkund (D) Naukuchiatal (Ans : C)

150. Which of the following food crops of Uttarakhand State, covers the maximum sown area? 
(A) Maize (B) Bajra (C) Wheat (D) Rice (Ans : C)